501. The nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE). The major complication associated with systemic
lupus erythematosus is:
A. Nephritis
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Desquamation
D. Meningitis
A. Nephritis
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Desquamation
D. Meningitis
502.
A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy has been started on Proscar
(finasteride). The nurse’s discharge teaching should include:
A. Telling the client’s wife not to touch the tablets
B. Explaining that the medication should be taken with meals
C. Telling the client that symptoms will improve in 1–2 weeks
D. Instructing the client to take the medication at bed-time, to prevent nocturia
A. Telling the client’s wife not to touch the tablets
B. Explaining that the medication should be taken with meals
C. Telling the client that symptoms will improve in 1–2 weeks
D. Instructing the client to take the medication at bed-time, to prevent nocturia
503.
A five-year-old child is hospitalized for correction of congenital hip
dysplasia. During the assessment of the child, the nurse can expect to
find the presence of:
A. Scarf sign
B. Harlequin sign
C. Cullen’s sign
D. Trendelenburg sign
A. Scarf sign
B. Harlequin sign
C. Cullen’s sign
D. Trendelenburg sign
504. Which diet is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer?
A. Low protein, complex carbohydrates
B. High protein, simple carbohydrates
C. High fat, refined carbohydrates
D. Low carbohydrates, complex proteins
A. Low protein, complex carbohydrates
B. High protein, simple carbohydrates
C. High fat, refined carbohydrates
D. Low carbohydrates, complex proteins
505. The nurse is caring for an infant following a cleft lip repair. While comforting the infant, the nurse should avoid:
A. Holding the infant
B. Offering a pacifier
C. Providing a mobile
D. Offering sterile water
A. Holding the infant
B. Offering a pacifier
C. Providing a mobile
D. Offering sterile water
506.
The physician has diagnosed a client with cirrhosis characterized by
asterixis. If the nurse assesses the client with asterixis, he can
expect to find:
A. Irregular movement of the wrist
B. Enlargement of the breasts
C. Dilated veins around the umbilicus
D. Redness of the palmar surfaces
A. Irregular movement of the wrist
B. Enlargement of the breasts
C. Dilated veins around the umbilicus
D. Redness of the palmar surfaces
507.
The physician has ordered Amoxil (amoxicillin) 500mg capsules for a
client with esophageal varices. The nurse can best care for the client’s
needs by:
A. Giving the medication as ordered
B. Providing extra water with the medication
C. Giving the medication with an antacid
D. Requesting an alternate form of the medication
A. Giving the medication as ordered
B. Providing extra water with the medication
C. Giving the medication with an antacid
D. Requesting an alternate form of the medication
508.
A client with an inguinal hernia asks the nurse why he should have
surgery when he has had a hernia for years. The nurse understands that
surgery is recommended to:
A. Prevent strangulation of the bowel
B. Prevent malabsorptive disorders
C. Decrease secretion of bile salts
D. Increase intestinal motility
A. Prevent strangulation of the bowel
B. Prevent malabsorptive disorders
C. Decrease secretion of bile salts
D. Increase intestinal motility
509. The nurse is providing dietary instructions for a client with iron-deficiency anemia. Which food is a poor source of iron?
A. Tomatoes
B. Legumes
C. Dried fruits
D. Nuts
A. Tomatoes
B. Legumes
C. Dried fruits
D. Nuts
510. A client is admitted with suspected acute pancreatitis. Which lab finding confirms the diagnosis?
A. Blood glucose of 260mg/dL
B. White cell count of 21,000cu/mm
C. Platelet count of 250,000cu/mm
D. Serum amylase level of 600 units/dL
A. Blood glucose of 260mg/dL
B. White cell count of 21,000cu/mm
C. Platelet count of 250,000cu/mm
D. Serum amylase level of 600 units/dL
511.
The nurse is teaching a client with Parkinson’s disease ways to prevent
curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal
flexion, the nurse should tell the client to:
A. Periodically lie prone without a neck pillow.
B. Sleep only in dorsal recumbent position.
C. Rest in supine position with his head elevated.
D. Sleep on either side, but keep his back straight.
A. Periodically lie prone without a neck pillow.
B. Sleep only in dorsal recumbent position.
C. Rest in supine position with his head elevated.
D. Sleep on either side, but keep his back straight.
512.
The physician has ordered Dilantin (phenytoin) 100mg intra-venously for
a client with generalized tonic clonic seizures. The nurse should
administer the medication:
A. Rapidly with an IV push
B. With IV dextrose
C. Slowly over 2–3 minutes
D. Through a small vein
A. Rapidly with an IV push
B. With IV dextrose
C. Slowly over 2–3 minutes
D. Through a small vein
513.
The nurse is planning dietary changes for a client following an episode
of acute pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the client?
A. Low calorie, low carbohydrate
B. High calorie, low fat
C. High protein, high fat
D. Low protein, high carbohydrate
A. Low calorie, low carbohydrate
B. High calorie, low fat
C. High protein, high fat
D. Low protein, high carbohydrate
514. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera. The nurse should closely monitor the client for:
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased respirations
C. Increased urinary output
D. Decreased oxygen saturation
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased respirations
C. Increased urinary output
D. Decreased oxygen saturation
515.
A client with hypothyroidism frequently complains of feeling cold. The
nurse should tell the client that she will be more comfortable if she:
A. Uses an electric blanket at night
B. Dresses in extra layers of clothing
C. Applies a heating pad to her feet
D. Takes a hot bath morning and evening
A. Uses an electric blanket at night
B. Dresses in extra layers of clothing
C. Applies a heating pad to her feet
D. Takes a hot bath morning and evening
516.
The nurse caring for a client with a closed head injury obtains an
intracranial pressure (ICP) reading of 17mmHg. The nurse recognizes
that:
A. The ICP is elevated and the doctor should be notified.
B. The ICP is normal; therefore, no further action is needed.
C. The ICP is low and the client needs additional IV fluids.
D. The ICP reading is not as reliable as the Glascow coma scale.
A. The ICP is elevated and the doctor should be notified.
B. The ICP is normal; therefore, no further action is needed.
C. The ICP is low and the client needs additional IV fluids.
D. The ICP reading is not as reliable as the Glascow coma scale.
517.
A client has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of laryngeal cancer.
Which factor is most significant in the development of laryngeal cancer?
A. A family history of laryngeal cancer
B. Chronic inhalation of noxious fumes
C. Frequent straining of the vocal cords
D. A history of frequent alcohol and tobacco use
A. A family history of laryngeal cancer
B. Chronic inhalation of noxious fumes
C. Frequent straining of the vocal cords
D. A history of frequent alcohol and tobacco use
518.
The nurse is completing an assessment history of a client with
pernicious anemia. Which complaint differentiates pernicious anemia from
other types of anemia?
A. Difficulty in breathing after exertion
B. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
C. A faster than usual heart rate
D. Feelings of lightheadedness
A. Difficulty in breathing after exertion
B. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
C. A faster than usual heart rate
D. Feelings of lightheadedness
519.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is beginning to develop flexion
contractures of the knees. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Lie prone and let her feet hang over the mattress edge
B. Lie supine, with her feet rotated inward
C. Lie on her right side and point her toes downward
D. Lie on her left side and allow her feet to remain in a neutral position
A. Lie prone and let her feet hang over the mattress edge
B. Lie supine, with her feet rotated inward
C. Lie on her right side and point her toes downward
D. Lie on her left side and allow her feet to remain in a neutral position
520. The chart of a client with schizophrenia states that the client has echolalia. The nurse can expect the client to:
A. Speak using words that rhyme
B. Repeat words or phrases used by others
C. Include irrelevant details in conversation
D. Make up new words with new meanings
A. Speak using words that rhyme
B. Repeat words or phrases used by others
C. Include irrelevant details in conversation
D. Make up new words with new meanings
521.
The mother of a one-year-old with sickle cell anemia wants to know why
the condition didn’t show up in the nursery. The nurse’s response is
based on the knowledge that:
A. There is no test to measure abnormal hemoglobin in newborns.
B. Infants do not have insensible fluid loss before a year of age.
C. Infants rarely have infections that would cause them to have a sickling crises.
D. The presence of fetal hemoglobin protects the infant.
A. There is no test to measure abnormal hemoglobin in newborns.
B. Infants do not have insensible fluid loss before a year of age.
C. Infants rarely have infections that would cause them to have a sickling crises.
D. The presence of fetal hemoglobin protects the infant.
522. Which early morning activity helps to reduce the symptoms associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Brushing the teeth
B. Drinking a glass of juice
C. Holding a cup of coffee
D. Brushing the hair
A. Brushing the teeth
B. Drinking a glass of juice
C. Holding a cup of coffee
D. Brushing the hair
523.
A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during
surgery. If no B negative blood is available, the client should be
transfused with:
A. A positive blood
B. B positive blood
C. O negative blood
D. AB negative blood
A. A positive blood
B. B positive blood
C. O negative blood
D. AB negative blood
524.
The nurse notes that a post-operative client’s respirations have
dropped from 14 to 6 breaths per minute. The nurse administers Narcan
(naloxone) per standing order. Following administration of the
medication, the nurse should assess the client for:
A. Pupillary changes
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Wheezing respirations
D. Sudden, intense pain
A. Pupillary changes
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Wheezing respirations
D. Sudden, intense pain
525. A newborn weighed seven pounds at birth. At six months of age, the infant could be expected to weigh:
A. 14 pounds
B. 18 pounds
C. 25 pounds
D. 30 pounds
A. 14 pounds
B. 18 pounds
C. 25 pounds
D. 30 pounds
526.
A client with nontropical sprue has an exacerbation of symptoms. Which
meal selection is responsible for the recurrence of the client’s
symptoms?
A. Tossed salad with oil and vinegar dressing
B. Baked potato with sour cream and chives
C. Cream of tomato soup and crackers
D. Mixed fruit and yogurt
A. Tossed salad with oil and vinegar dressing
B. Baked potato with sour cream and chives
C. Cream of tomato soup and crackers
D. Mixed fruit and yogurt
527.
A client with congestive heart failure has been receiving digoxin
(Laxoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is having a
desired effect?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Stabilized weight
C. Improved appetite
D. Increased pedal edema
A. Increased urinary output
B. Stabilized weight
C. Improved appetite
D. Increased pedal edema
528. Which play activity is best suited to the gross motor skills of a toddler?
A. Coloring book and crayons
B. Ball
C. Building cubes
D. Swing set
A. Coloring book and crayons
B. Ball
C. Building cubes
D. Swing set
529.
A client in labor admits to using alcohol throughout the pregnancy. The
most recent use was the day before. Based on the client’s history, the
nurse should give priority to assessing the newborn for:
A. Respiratory depression
B. Wide-set eyes
C. Jitteriness
D. Low-set ears
A. Respiratory depression
B. Wide-set eyes
C. Jitteriness
D. Low-set ears
530.
The physician has ordered Basaljel (aluminum carbonate gel) for a
client with recurrent indigestion. The nurse should teach the client
common side effects of the medication, which include:
A. Constipation
B. Urinary retention
C. Diarrhea
D. Confusion
A. Constipation
B. Urinary retention
C. Diarrhea
D. Confusion
531.
A client is admitted with suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). A
common complaint of the client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm is:
A. Loss of sensation in the lower extremities
B. Back pain that lessens when standing
C. Decreased urinary output
D. Pulsations in the periumbilical area
A. Loss of sensation in the lower extremities
B. Back pain that lessens when standing
C. Decreased urinary output
D. Pulsations in the periumbilical area
532. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with nephrotic syndrome. Based on the client’s treatment, the nurse should:
A. Limit the number of visitors.
B. Provide a low-protein diet.
C. Discuss the possibility of dialysis.
D. Offer the client additional fluids.
A. Limit the number of visitors.
B. Provide a low-protein diet.
C. Discuss the possibility of dialysis.
D. Offer the client additional fluids.
533.
A client is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. During the intake
assessment, the nurse can expect to find that the client has:
A. Low blood pressure
B. A slow, regular pulse
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Increased urination
A. Low blood pressure
B. A slow, regular pulse
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Increased urination
534.
A five-month-old infant is admitted to the ER with a temperature of
103.6°F and irritability. The mother states that the child has been
listless for the past several hours and that he had a seizure on the way
to the hospital. A lumbar puncture confirms a diagnosis of bacterial
meningitis. The nurse should assess the infant for:
A. Periorbital edema
B. Tenseness of the anterior fontanel
C. Positive Babinski reflex
D. Negative scarf sign
A. Periorbital edema
B. Tenseness of the anterior fontanel
C. Positive Babinski reflex
D. Negative scarf sign
535.
A client with pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is receiving intravenous
Pentam (pentamidine). While administering the medication, the nurse
should give priority to checking the client’s:
A. Deep tendon reflexes
B. Blood pressure
C. Urine output
D. Tissue turgor
A. Deep tendon reflexes
B. Blood pressure
C. Urine output
D. Tissue turgor
536.
The doctor has ordered Ampicillin 100mg every six hours IV push for an
infant weighing 7kg. The suggested dose for infants is 25–50mg/kg/day in
equally divided doses. The nurse should:
A. Give the medication as ordered.
B. Give half the amount ordered.
C. Give the ordered amount q 12 hrs.
D. Check the order with the doctor.
A. Give the medication as ordered.
B. Give half the amount ordered.
C. Give the ordered amount q 12 hrs.
D. Check the order with the doctor.
537.
An elderly client is hospitalized for a transurethral prostatectomy.
Which finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. Hourly urinary output of 40–50mL
B. Bright red urine with many clots
C. Dark red urine with few clots
D. Requests for pain med every four hours
A. Hourly urinary output of 40–50mL
B. Bright red urine with many clots
C. Dark red urine with few clots
D. Requests for pain med every four hours
538. Which statement by the parent of a child with sickle cell anemia indicates an understanding of the disease?
A. The pain he has is due to the presence of too many red blood cells.
B. He will be able to go snow skiing with his friends as long as he stays warm.
C. He will need extra fluids in summer to prevent dehydration.
D. There is very little chance that his brother will have sickle cell.
A. The pain he has is due to the presence of too many red blood cells.
B. He will be able to go snow skiing with his friends as long as he stays warm.
C. He will need extra fluids in summer to prevent dehydration.
D. There is very little chance that his brother will have sickle cell.
539. A toddler with otitis media has just completed antibiotic therapy. A recheck appointment should be made to:
A. Determine whether the ear infection has affected her hearing.
B. Make sure that she has taken all the antibiotic.
C. Document that the infection has completely cleared.
D. Obtain a new prescription, in case the infection recurs.
A. Determine whether the ear infection has affected her hearing.
B. Make sure that she has taken all the antibiotic.
C. Document that the infection has completely cleared.
D. Obtain a new prescription, in case the infection recurs.
540. A nine-year-old is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which finding is suggestive of Sydenham’s chorea?
A. Irregular movements of the extremities and facial grimacing
B. Painless swellings over the extensor surfaces of the joints
C. Faint areas of red demarcation over the back and abdomen
D. Swelling, inflammation, and effusion of the joints
A. Irregular movements of the extremities and facial grimacing
B. Painless swellings over the extensor surfaces of the joints
C. Faint areas of red demarcation over the back and abdomen
D. Swelling, inflammation, and effusion of the joints
541.
A child with croup is placed in a cool, high-humidity tent connected to
room air. The primary purpose of the high-humidity tent is to:
A. Prevent insensible water loss
B. Provide a moist environment with oxygen at 30%
C. Prevent dehydration and reduce fever
D. Liquefy secretions and relieve laryngeal spasm
A. Prevent insensible water loss
B. Provide a moist environment with oxygen at 30%
C. Prevent dehydration and reduce fever
D. Liquefy secretions and relieve laryngeal spasm
542.
The nurse is suctioning the tracheostomy of an adult client. The
recommended pressure setting for performing tracheostomy suctioning on
the adult client is:
A. 40–60mmHg
B. 60–80mmHg
C. 80–120mmHg
D. 120–140mmHg
A. 40–60mmHg
B. 60–80mmHg
C. 80–120mmHg
D. 120–140mmHg
543. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myxedema. An initial assessment of the client would reveal the symptoms of:
A. Slow pulse rate, weight loss, diarrhea, and cardiac failure
B. Weight gain, lethargy, slowed speech, and decreased respiratory rate
C. Rapid pulse, constipation, and bulging eyes
D. Decreased body temperature, weight loss, and increased respirations
A. Slow pulse rate, weight loss, diarrhea, and cardiac failure
B. Weight gain, lethargy, slowed speech, and decreased respiratory rate
C. Rapid pulse, constipation, and bulging eyes
D. Decreased body temperature, weight loss, and increased respirations
544. Which statement describes the contagious stage of varicella?
A. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until the appearance of vesicles.
B. The contagious stage lasts during the vesicular and crusting stages of the lesions.
C. The contagious stage is from the onset of the rash until the rash disappears.
D. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until all the lesions are crusted.
A. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until the appearance of vesicles.
B. The contagious stage lasts during the vesicular and crusting stages of the lesions.
C. The contagious stage is from the onset of the rash until the rash disappears.
D. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until all the lesions are crusted.
545.
The nurse is reviewing the results of a sweat test taken from a child
with cystic fibrosis. Which finding supports the client’s diagnosis?
A. A sweat potassium concentration less than 40mEq/L
B. A sweat chloride concentration greater than 60mEq/L
C. A sweat potassium concentration greater than 40mEq/L
D. A sweat chloride concentration less than 40mEq/L
A. A sweat potassium concentration less than 40mEq/L
B. A sweat chloride concentration greater than 60mEq/L
C. A sweat potassium concentration greater than 40mEq/L
D. A sweat chloride concentration less than 40mEq/L
546.
A client in labor has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg. IM to be
administered 10 minutes before delivery. The nurse should:
A. Wait until the client is placed on the delivery table and administer the medication.
B. Question the order because the medication might cause respiratory depression in the newborn.
C. Give the medication IM during the delivery to prevent pain from the episiotomy.
D. Give the medication as ordered.
A. Wait until the client is placed on the delivery table and administer the medication.
B. Question the order because the medication might cause respiratory depression in the newborn.
C. Give the medication IM during the delivery to prevent pain from the episiotomy.
D. Give the medication as ordered.
547. Which of the following statements describes Piaget’s stage of concrete operations?
A. Reflex activity proceeds to imitative behavior.
B. The ability to see another’s point of view increases.
C. Thought processes become more logical and coherent.
D. The ability to think abstractly leads to logical conclusion.
A. Reflex activity proceeds to imitative behavior.
B. The ability to see another’s point of view increases.
C. Thought processes become more logical and coherent.
D. The ability to think abstractly leads to logical conclusion.
548.
A client admitted to the psychiatric unit claims to be the Pope and
insists that he will not be kept away from his followers. The most
likely explanation for the client’s delusion is:
A. A reaction formation
B. A stressful event
C. Low self-esteem
D. Overwhelming anxiety
A. A reaction formation
B. A stressful event
C. Low self-esteem
D. Overwhelming anxiety
549. Which of the following statements reflects Kohlberg’s theory of the moral development of the preschool-age child?
A. Obeying adults is seen as correct behavior.
B. Showing respect for parents is seen as important.
C. Pleasing others is viewed as good behavior.
D. Behavior is determined by consequences.
A. Obeying adults is seen as correct behavior.
B. Showing respect for parents is seen as important.
C. Pleasing others is viewed as good behavior.
D. Behavior is determined by consequences.
550. The nurse is caring for an eight-year-old following a routine tonsillectomy. Which finding should be reported immediately?
A. Reluctance to swallow
B. Drooling of blood-tinged saliva
C. An axillary temperature of 99°F
D. Respiratory stridor
A. Reluctance to swallow
B. Drooling of blood-tinged saliva
C. An axillary temperature of 99°F
D. Respiratory stridor
551.
The nurse is admitting a client with a suspected duodenal ulcer. The
client will most likely report that his abdominal discomfort decreases
when he:
A. Avoids eating
B. Rests in a recumbent position
C. Eats a meal or snack
D. Sits upright after eating
A. Avoids eating
B. Rests in a recumbent position
C. Eats a meal or snack
D. Sits upright after eating
552.
The nurse is assessing a newborn in the well-baby nursery. Which
finding should alert the nurse to the possibility of a cardiac anomaly?
A. Diminished femoral pulses
B. Harlequin’s sign
C. Circumoral pallor
D. Acrocyanosis
A. Diminished femoral pulses
B. Harlequin’s sign
C. Circumoral pallor
D. Acrocyanosis
553. A two-year-old is hospitalized with a diagnosis of Kawasaki’s disease. A severe complication of Kawasaki’s disease is:
A. The development of Brushfield spots
B. The eruption of Hutchinson’s teeth
C. The development of coxa plana
D. The creation of a giant aneurysm
A. The development of Brushfield spots
B. The eruption of Hutchinson’s teeth
C. The development of coxa plana
D. The creation of a giant aneurysm
554.
The charge nurse is formulating a discharge teaching plan for a client
with mild preeclampsia. The nurse should give priority to:
A. Teaching the client to report a nosebleed
B. Instructing the client to maintain strict bed rest
C. Telling the client to notify the doctor of pedal edema
D. Advising the client to avoid sodium sources in the diet
A. Teaching the client to report a nosebleed
B. Instructing the client to maintain strict bed rest
C. Telling the client to notify the doctor of pedal edema
D. Advising the client to avoid sodium sources in the diet
555. The nurse is preparing to discharge a client who is taking an MAOI. The nurse should instruct the client to:
A. Wear protective clothing and sunglasses when outside.
B. Avoid over-the-counter cold and hay fever preparations.
C. Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
D. Increase his intake of high-quality protein.
A. Wear protective clothing and sunglasses when outside.
B. Avoid over-the-counter cold and hay fever preparations.
C. Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
D. Increase his intake of high-quality protein.
556. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac disease?
A. Toast, jam, and apple juice
B. Peanut butter cookies and milk
C. Rice Krispies bar and milk
D. Cheese pizza and Kool-Aid
A. Toast, jam, and apple juice
B. Peanut butter cookies and milk
C. Rice Krispies bar and milk
D. Cheese pizza and Kool-Aid
557.
A client with hyperthyroidism is taking Eskalith (lithium carbonate) to
inhibit thyroid hormone release. Which complaint by the client should
alert the nurse to a problem with the client’s medication?
A. The client complains of blurred vision.
B. The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination.
C. The client complains of increased weight gain over the past year.
D. The client complains of rhinorrhea.
A. The client complains of blurred vision.
B. The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination.
C. The client complains of increased weight gain over the past year.
D. The client complains of rhinorrhea.
558.
The physician has ordered intravenous fluid with potassium for a client
admitted with gastroenteritis and dehydration. Before adding potassium
to the intravenous fluid, the nurse should:
A. Assess the urinary output.
B. Obtain arterial blood gases.
C. Perform a dextrostick.
D. Obtain a stool culture.
A. Assess the urinary output.
B. Obtain arterial blood gases.
C. Perform a dextrostick.
D. Obtain a stool culture.
559.
A two-month-old infant has just received her first Tetramune injection.
The nurse should tell the mother that the immunization:
A. Will need to be repeated when the child is four years of age
B. Is given to determine whether the child is susceptible to pertussis
C. Is one of a series of injections that protects against diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and H.influenzae b
D. Is a one-time injection that protects against measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella
A. Will need to be repeated when the child is four years of age
B. Is given to determine whether the child is susceptible to pertussis
C. Is one of a series of injections that protects against diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and H.influenzae b
D. Is a one-time injection that protects against measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella
560.
A client with Addison’s disease has been receiving glucocorticoid
therapy. Which finding indicates a need for dosage adjustment?
A. Dryness of the skin and mucus membranes
B. Dizziness when rising to a standing position
C. A weight gain of six pounds in the past week
D. Difficulty in remaining asleep
A. Dryness of the skin and mucus membranes
B. Dizziness when rising to a standing position
C. A weight gain of six pounds in the past week
D. Difficulty in remaining asleep
561.
The nurse is caring for an obstetrical client in early labor. After the
rupture of membranes, the nurse should give priority to:
A. Applying an internal monitor
B. Assessing fetal heart tones
C. Assisting with epidural anesthesia
D. Inserting a Foley catheter
A. Applying an internal monitor
B. Assessing fetal heart tones
C. Assisting with epidural anesthesia
D. Inserting a Foley catheter
562.
The physician has prescribed Synthroid (levothyroxine) for a client
with myxedema. Which statement indicates that the client understands the
nurse’s teaching regarding the medication?
A. "I will take the medication each morning after breakfast."
B. "I will check my heart rate before taking the medication."
C. "I will report visual disturbances to my doctor."
D. "I will stop the medication if I develop gastric upset."
A. "I will take the medication each morning after breakfast."
B. "I will check my heart rate before taking the medication."
C. "I will report visual disturbances to my doctor."
D. "I will stop the medication if I develop gastric upset."
563.
The nurse is caring for a client with a radium implant for the
treatment of cervical cancer. While caring for the client with a
radioactive implant, the nurse should:
A. Provide emotional support by spending additional time with the client.
B. Stand at the foot of the bed when talking to the client.
C. Avoid handling items used by the client.
D. Wear a badge to monitor the amount of time spent in the client’s room.
A. Provide emotional support by spending additional time with the client.
B. Stand at the foot of the bed when talking to the client.
C. Avoid handling items used by the client.
D. Wear a badge to monitor the amount of time spent in the client’s room.
564.
The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with bipolar disorder,
manic phase. Which of the following snacks would be best for the client?
A. Potato chips
B. Diet cola
C. Apple
D. Milkshake
A. Potato chips
B. Diet cola
C. Apple
D. Milkshake
565.
The physician has prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) for a client with
depression. The nurse should continue to monitor the client’s affect
because the maximal effects of tricyclic antidepressant medication do
not occur for:
A. 48–72 hours
B. 5–7 days
C. 2–4 weeks
D. 3–6 months
A. 48–72 hours
B. 5–7 days
C. 2–4 weeks
D. 3–6 months
566.
An elderly client with glaucoma has been prescribed Timoptic (timolol)
eyedrops. Timoptic should be used with caution in clients with a history
of:
A. Diabetes
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Emphysema
D. Pancreatitis
A. Diabetes
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Emphysema
D. Pancreatitis
567. A two-year-old is hospitalized with suspected intussusception. Which finding is associated with intussusception?
A. "Currant jelly"stools
B. Projectile vomiting
C. "Ribbonlike"stools
D. Palpable mass over the flank
A. "Currant jelly"stools
B. Projectile vomiting
C. "Ribbonlike"stools
D. Palpable mass over the flank
568. Which of the following findings would be expected in the infant with biliary atresia?
A. Rapid weight gain and hepatomegaly
B. Dark stools and poor weight gain
C. Abdominal distention and poor weight gain
D. Abdominal distention and rapid weight gain
A. Rapid weight gain and hepatomegaly
B. Dark stools and poor weight gain
C. Abdominal distention and poor weight gain
D. Abdominal distention and rapid weight gain
569.
A client is being treated for cancer with linear acceleration
radiation. The physician has marked the radiation site with a blue
marking pen. The nurse should:
A. Remove the unsightly markings with acetone or alcohol.
B. Cover the radiation site with loose gauze dressing.
C. Sprinkle baby powder over the radiated area.
D. Refrain from using soap or lotion on the marked area.
A. Remove the unsightly markings with acetone or alcohol.
B. Cover the radiation site with loose gauze dressing.
C. Sprinkle baby powder over the radiated area.
D. Refrain from using soap or lotion on the marked area.
570.
The blood alcohol concentration of a client admitted following a motor
vehicle accident is 460mg/dL. The nurse should give priority to
monitoring the client for:
A. Loss of coordination
B. Respiratory depression
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Tachycardia
A. Loss of coordination
B. Respiratory depression
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Tachycardia
571. The nurse is caring for a client with acromegaly. Following a transphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should:
A. Monitor the client’s blood sugar.
B. Suction the mouth and pharynx every hour.
C. Place the client in low Trendelenburg position.
D. Encourage the client to cough.
A. Monitor the client’s blood sugar.
B. Suction the mouth and pharynx every hour.
C. Place the client in low Trendelenburg position.
D. Encourage the client to cough.
572.
A client newly diagnosed with diabetes is started on Precose
(acarbose). The nurse should tell the client that the medication should
be taken:
A. one hour before meals
B. 30 minutes after meals
C. With the first bite of a meal
D. Daily at bedtime
A. one hour before meals
B. 30 minutes after meals
C. With the first bite of a meal
D. Daily at bedtime
573.
A client with a deep decubitus ulcer is receiving therapy in the
hyperbaric oxygen chamber. Before therapy, the nurse should:
A. Apply a lanolin-based lotion to the skin.
B. Wash the skin with water and pat dry.
C. Cover the area with a petroleum gauze.
D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the site.
A. Apply a lanolin-based lotion to the skin.
B. Wash the skin with water and pat dry.
C. Cover the area with a petroleum gauze.
D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the site.
574.
The physician has ordered DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) for a client
with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the medication is
having its intended effect?
A. The client’s appetite has improved.
B. The client’s morning blood sugar was 120mg/dL.
C. The client’s urinary output has decreased.
D. The client’s activity level has increased.
A. The client’s appetite has improved.
B. The client’s morning blood sugar was 120mg/dL.
C. The client’s urinary output has decreased.
D. The client’s activity level has increased.
575.
A client with pregnancy-induced hypertension is scheduled for a
C-section. Before surgery, the nurse should keep the client:
A. On her right side
B. Supine with a small pillow
C. On her left side
D. In knee chest position
A. On her right side
B. Supine with a small pillow
C. On her left side
D. In knee chest position
576.
The physician has prescribed Coumadin (sodium warfarin) for a client
having transient ischemic attacks. Which laboratory test measures the
therapeutic level of Coumadin?
A. Prothrombin time
B. Clot retraction time
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Bleeding time
A. Prothrombin time
B. Clot retraction time
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Bleeding time
577.
An adolescent client with cystic acne has a prescription for Accutane
(isotretinoin). Which lab work is needed before beginning the
medication?
A. Complete blood count
B. Clean-catch urinalysis
C. Liver profile
D. Thyroid function test
A. Complete blood count
B. Clean-catch urinalysis
C. Liver profile
D. Thyroid function test
578.
Twenty-four hours after an uncomplicated labor and delivery, a client’s
WBC is 12,000cu/mm. The elevation in the client’s WBC is most likely an
indication of:
A. A normal response to the birth process
B. An acute bacterial infection
C. A sexually transmitted virus
D. Dehydration from being NPO during labor
A. A normal response to the birth process
B. An acute bacterial infection
C. A sexually transmitted virus
D. Dehydration from being NPO during labor
579.
The home health nurse is visiting a client who plans to deliver her
baby at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding
regarding screening for phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A. "I will need to take the baby to the clinic within 24 hours of delivery to have blood drawn."
B. "I will need to schedule a home visit for PKU screening when the baby is three-days-old."
C. "I will remind the midwife to save a specimen of cord blood for the PKU test."
D. "I will have the PKU test done when I take her for her first immunizations."
A. "I will need to take the baby to the clinic within 24 hours of delivery to have blood drawn."
B. "I will need to schedule a home visit for PKU screening when the baby is three-days-old."
C. "I will remind the midwife to save a specimen of cord blood for the PKU test."
D. "I will have the PKU test done when I take her for her first immunizations."
580.
The physician has ordered intubation and mechanical ventilation for a
client with periods of apnea following a closed head injury. Arterial
blood gases reveal a pH of 7.47, PCO2 of 28, and HCO 3 of 23. These
findings indicate that the client has:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
581. A client is diagnosed with emphysema and cor pulmonale. Which findings are characteristic of cor pulmonale?
A. Hypoxia, shortness of breath, and exertional fatigue
B. Weight loss, increased RBC, and fever
C. Rales, edema, and enlarged spleen
D. Edema of the lower extremities and distended neck veins
A. Hypoxia, shortness of breath, and exertional fatigue
B. Weight loss, increased RBC, and fever
C. Rales, edema, and enlarged spleen
D. Edema of the lower extremities and distended neck veins
582.
A client with a laryngectomy returns from surgery with a nasogastric
tube in place. The primary reason for placement of the nasogastric tube
is to:
A. Prevent swelling and dysphagia
B. Decompress the stomach
C. Prevent contamination of the suture line
D. Promote healing of the oral mucosa
A. Prevent swelling and dysphagia
B. Decompress the stomach
C. Prevent contamination of the suture line
D. Promote healing of the oral mucosa
583.
The physician orders the removal of an in-dwelling catheter the second
post-operative day for a client with a prostatectomy. The client
complains of pain and dribbling of urine the first time he voids. The
nurse should tell the client that:
A. Using warm compresses over the bladder will lessen the discomfort.
B. Perineal exercises will be started in a few days to help relieve his symptoms.
C. If the symptoms don’t improve, the catheter will have to be reinserted.
D. His complaints are common and will improve over the next few days.
A. Using warm compresses over the bladder will lessen the discomfort.
B. Perineal exercises will be started in a few days to help relieve his symptoms.
C. If the symptoms don’t improve, the catheter will have to be reinserted.
D. His complaints are common and will improve over the next few days.
584.
A client with a right lobectomy is being transported from the intensive
care unit to a medical unit. The nurse understands that the client’s
chest drainage system:
A. Can be disconnected from suction if the chest tube is clamped
B. Can be disconnected from suction, but the chest tube should remain unclamped
C. Must remain connected by means of a portable suction
D. Must be kept even with the client’s shoulders during the transport
A. Can be disconnected from suction if the chest tube is clamped
B. Can be disconnected from suction, but the chest tube should remain unclamped
C. Must remain connected by means of a portable suction
D. Must be kept even with the client’s shoulders during the transport
585.
A nurse is caring for a client with a myocardial infarction. The nurse
recognizes that the most common complication in the client following a
myocardial infarction is:
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Cardiac dysrhythmia
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Hyperkalemia
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Cardiac dysrhythmia
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Hyperkalemia
586.
A client develops a temperature of 102°F following coronary artery
bypass surgery. The nurse should notify the physician immediately
because elevations in temperature:
A. Increase cardiac output
B. Indicate cardiac tamponade
C. Decrease cardiac output
D. Indicate graft rejection
A. Increase cardiac output
B. Indicate cardiac tamponade
C. Decrease cardiac output
D. Indicate graft rejection
587.
The chart indicates that a client has expressive aphasia following a
stroke. The nurse understands that the client will have difficulty with:
A. Speaking and writing
B. Comprehending spoken words
C. Carrying out purposeful motor activity
D. Recognizing and using an object correctly
A. Speaking and writing
B. Comprehending spoken words
C. Carrying out purposeful motor activity
D. Recognizing and using an object correctly
588.
A client receiving Parnate (tranylcypromine) is admitted in a
hypertensive crisis. Which food is most likely to produce a hypertensive
crisis when taken with the medication?
A. Processed cheese
B. Cottage cheese
C. Cream cheese
D. Cheddar cheese
A. Processed cheese
B. Cottage cheese
C. Cream cheese
D. Cheddar cheese
589. To prevent deformities of the knee joints in a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should:
A. Tell the client to remain on bed rest until swelling subsides.
B. Discourage passive range of motion because it will cause further swelling.
C. Encourage motion of the joint within the limits of pain.
D. Tell the client she will need joint immobilization for 2–3 weeks.
A. Tell the client to remain on bed rest until swelling subsides.
B. Discourage passive range of motion because it will cause further swelling.
C. Encourage motion of the joint within the limits of pain.
D. Tell the client she will need joint immobilization for 2–3 weeks.
590.
The nurse is assessing a trauma client in the emergency room when she
notes a penetrating abdominal wound with exposed viscera. The nurse
should:
A. Apply a clean dressing to protect the wound.
B. Cover the exposed viscera with a sterile saline gauze.
C. Gently replace the abdominal contents.
D. Cover the area with a petroleum gauze.
A. Apply a clean dressing to protect the wound.
B. Cover the exposed viscera with a sterile saline gauze.
C. Gently replace the abdominal contents.
D. Cover the area with a petroleum gauze.
591. A client is admitted to the emergency room with multiple injuries. What is the proper sequence for managing the client?
A. Assess for head injuries, control hemorrhage, establish an airway, prevent hypovolemic shock
B. Control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, establish an airway, assess for head injuries
C. Establish an airway, control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries
D. Prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries, establish an airway, control hemorrhage
A. Assess for head injuries, control hemorrhage, establish an airway, prevent hypovolemic shock
B. Control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, establish an airway, assess for head injuries
C. Establish an airway, control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries
D. Prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries, establish an airway, control hemorrhage
592.
The nurse is teaching the mother of a child with attention deficit
disorder regarding the use of Ritalin (methylphenidate). The nurse
recognizes that the mother understands her teaching when she states the
importance of:
A. Offering high-calorie snacks
B. Watching for signs of infection
C. Observing for signs of oversedation
D. Using a sunscreen with an SPF of 30
A. Offering high-calorie snacks
B. Watching for signs of infection
C. Observing for signs of oversedation
D. Using a sunscreen with an SPF of 30
593.
A home health nurse has several elderly clients in her case load. Which
of the following clients is most likely to be a victim of elder abuse?
A. A 76-year-old female with Alzheimer’s dementia
B. A 70-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
C. A 64-year-old female with a hip replacement
D. A 72-year-old male with Parkinson’s disease
A. A 76-year-old female with Alzheimer’s dementia
B. A 70-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
C. A 64-year-old female with a hip replacement
D. A 72-year-old male with Parkinson’s disease
594.
A camp nurse is applying sunscreen to a group of children enrolled in
swim classes. Chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:
A. Just before sun exposure
B. Five minutes before sun exposure
C. 15 minutes before sun exposure
D. 30 minutes before sun exposure
A. Just before sun exposure
B. Five minutes before sun exposure
C. 15 minutes before sun exposure
D. 30 minutes before sun exposure
595.
The physician has made a diagnosis of "shaken child"syndrome for a
13-month-old who was brought to the emergency room after a reported fall
from his highchair. Which finding supports the diagnosis of "shaken
child"syndrome?
A. Fracture of the clavicle
B. Periorbital bruising
C. Retinal hemorrhages
D. Fracture of the humerus
A. Fracture of the clavicle
B. Periorbital bruising
C. Retinal hemorrhages
D. Fracture of the humerus
596.
A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and
Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3–4 hours as needed for pain. The
combination of the two medications produces a/an:
A. Agonist effect
B. Synergistic effect
C. Antagonist effect
D. Excitatory effect
A. Agonist effect
B. Synergistic effect
C. Antagonist effect
D. Excitatory effect
597. Which obstetrical client is most likely to have an infant with respiratory distress syndrome?
A. A 28-year-old with a history of alcohol use during the pregnancy
B. A 24-year-old with a history of diabetes mellitus
C. A 30-year-old with a history of smoking during the pregnancy
D. A 32-year-old with a history of pregnancy-induced hypertension
A. A 28-year-old with a history of alcohol use during the pregnancy
B. A 24-year-old with a history of diabetes mellitus
C. A 30-year-old with a history of smoking during the pregnancy
D. A 32-year-old with a history of pregnancy-induced hypertension
598. A client with a C4 spinal cord injury has been placed in traction with cervical tongs. Nursing care should include:
A. Releasing the traction for five minutes each shift
B. Loosening the pins if the client complains of headache
C. Elevating the head of the bed 90°
D. Performing sterile pin care as ordered
A. Releasing the traction for five minutes each shift
B. Loosening the pins if the client complains of headache
C. Elevating the head of the bed 90°
D. Performing sterile pin care as ordered
599.
The nurse is assessing a client following a coronary artery bypass
graft (CABG). The nurse should give priority to reporting:
A. Chest drainage of 150mL in the past hour
B. Confusion and restlessness
C. Pallor and coolness of skin
D. Urinary output of 40mL per hour
A. Chest drainage of 150mL in the past hour
B. Confusion and restlessness
C. Pallor and coolness of skin
D. Urinary output of 40mL per hour
600.
Before administering a client’s morning dose of Lanoxin (digoxin), the
nurse checks the apical pulse rate and finds a rate of 54. The
appropriate nursing intervention is to:
A. Record the pulse rate and administer the medication
B. Administer the medication and monitor the heart rate
C. Withhold the medication and notify the doctor
D. Withhold the medication until the heart rate increases
A. Record the pulse rate and administer the medication
B. Administer the medication and monitor the heart rate
C. Withhold the medication and notify the doctor
D. Withhold the medication until the heart rate increases
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