1 - 500 NMC Past Questions Bank

1. An infant should be able to sit fairly well unsupported at
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 7 months
D. 9 months

2. Permanent dentition begins at around
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

3. Which of the following activities will the child NOT do at 3 months?
A. Follows a light to the periphery
B. Has taste preference
C. Listens to sounds
D. Smile in response to a person or an object

4. A 3-year-old wets the bed during sleep. The nurse should
A. Change his bed and put rubber sheet on it
B. Change his bed clothes and make no issue of it
C. Explain to him that big boys should try to call the nurse
D. Tell him to help remake the bed

5. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom suddenly begins to have tonic-clonic seizure with clenched jaw. The nurse should immediately
A. Attempt to open the jaw and insert a gag
B. Call for an assistant
C. Lower the child to the floor
D. Place a large pillow under the head

6. A 5-month old infant has diarrhoea and is on IV fluids. The rate of flow must be observed often by the nurse to
A. Avoid IV infiltration
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent air from entering the tube
D. Replace all fluid lost

7. To prevent airway obstruction in the postoperative patient who is unconscious or semiconscious, the nurse?
A. Administers oxygen per mask
B. Elevates the head of the bed
C. Encourages deep breathing
D. Position the patient in a side-lying position

8. A post-operative patient expresses anxiety about upcoming surgery. Which response of the nurse would stimulate further discussion between the patient and the nurse?
A. Can you share with me your fears about surgery?
B. If it is any help, anyone is nervous before surgery
C. I have explained the entire surgical procedure to you
D. Let me tell you about the amount of pain you can expect

9. The nurse would expect a patient in an early stage of severe Hypovolemic shock to exhibit
A. A blood pressure 150/90
B. A distension of the neck vein
C. An apical heart rate of 142bpm
D. An output of 50ml urine per hour

10. The primary symptoms of hypochondriasis is……
A. Fear of developing a disease
B. Fear of spreading a disease
C. Fear of contact with diseased individuals
D. Fear of currently having a disease

11. A 78 year old man recovering from emergency hip surgery develops delirium. He seems to be hallucinating and is mildly confused. Which intervention should the nurse do first?
A. Loosely apply a vest restraint
B. Obtain an order for haloperidol
C. Arrange for an unlicensed assistant to sit with the client
D. Move the client to a room close to the nurses’ station

12. Common symptoms displayed by the client with schizoid personality disorder include
A. Physical abuse
B. Social indifference
C. Callous insensitivity
D. Over responsiveness

13. Obsessive-Compulsive personality disorder is characterized by………
A. Ritualistic, repetitive behavior such as hand washing
B. Rigid, controlling, perfectionistic behaviours
C. Fear of negative evaluation by others
D. An intense need for reassurance

14. A 35 year old male client tells his therapist that she reminds him of his mother. The therapist recognizes this as
A. Projection
B. Identification
C. Transference
D. Counter transference

15. Which type of child abuse can be most difficult to treat effectively?
A. Emotional
B. Neglect
C. Physical
D. Social

16. A client with anxiety is beginning treatment with lorazepam (Ativan). It is most important for the nurse to assess the client’s
A. Motivation for treatment
B. Family and social support
C. Use of coping mechanisms
D. Use of alcohol

17. When assessing a client with anxiety, the nurse’s questions should be
A. avoided until the anxiety is gone
B. open ended
C. postponed until the client tells volunteers information
D. specific and direct

18. The overall goal of psychiatric rehabilitation is for the client to gain
A. control of symptoms
B. freedom from hospitalization
C. management of anxiety
D. recovery from the illness

19. Which of the following typifies the speech of a person in the acute phase of mania?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Psychomotor retardation
C. Hesitant
D. Mutism

20. A client comes to day treatment intoxicated, but says he is not. The nurse identifies that the client is exhibiting symptoms of.....
A. Denial
B. Reaction formation
C. Projection
D. Transference

21. When working with a client with a paranoid personality disorder, the nurse would use which of the following approaches?
A. Cheerful
B. Friendly
C. Serious
D. Supportive

22. Which one of the following hallucinogenic drugs is MOST commonly abused?
A. Alcohol
B. Cocaine
C. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
D. Marijuana

23. You assessed that your friend Aku is serially anxious during the Licensing examination. What physiological evidence would you expect to see in her?
A. Dry scaly skin
B. Increased in salivation
C. Muscular flaccidity
D. Frequent urination

24. A recognized feature of alcohol withdrawal is
A. Absence of sweating
B. Bradycardia
C. Dilated pupils
D. Tremors

25. Which of the following means the same as Mongolism?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Gesner’s syndrome
C. Pick’s disease
D. Schizophreniform disorder

26. A teenaged girl is being evaluated for an eating disorder. Which of the following would suggest anorexia nervosa?
A. Guilt and shame about eating patterns
B. Lack of knowledge about and nutrition
C. Refusal to talk about food-related topics
D. Unrealistic perception of body size

27. The basis for the therapeutic effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is
A. Seizure activity
B. Electrical stimulation of the brain
C. Memory loss
D. The depressed patient’s wish for punishment

28. Ama sees a piece of rag on her table and screams that it is a snake. This behavior is referred to as
A. Delusion
B. Hallucination
C. Illusion
D. Phobia

29. The following behaviors are likely to be presented by a patient suffering from hysteria except
A. Alteration in mobility
B. Paralysis of hands
C. Potential to convulse
D. Potential to fall into fire

30. A therapeutic way of caring for person with obsessional thoughts and actions is for the nurse to
A. Allow him freedom of mobility
B. Prescribe ordered set of activity
C. Sedate patient most of the time
D. Strictly regulate his toilet activities

31. The major tranquilizers are the drug of choice in
A. Depression
B. Hyperkinesia
C. Narcotic withdrawal
D. Psychosis

32. Which of the following would you expect to find when assessing the anxious patients vital signs? I. Increased heart rate II. Elevated blood pressure III. Increased respiration
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II & III

33. What is the immediate priority in the nursing care of a 6-year-old child admitted with pneumonia?
A. Elimination
B. Exercise
C. Nutrition
D. Rest

34. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is.....
A. increased temperature
B. urethral discharge
C. pelvic pain
D. dysuria

35. Nursing care for an infant after surgical repair of a cleft lip should include
A. Giving the baby nil per os (N.P.O)
B. Keeping the infant from crying
C. Placing the infant in a semi fowler’s position surgery
D. Spoon feed for the first 2 days after

36. Nurse Little is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
A. At the end of her menstrual cycle
B. On the same day each month
C. On the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
D. Immediately after her menstrual period.

37. Which of the following is a clinical feature of marasmus?
A. Moon-shaped face due to oedema
B. Flaky point dermatosis
C. Constantly crying for food
D. Reddish brown hair

38. A female child, age 6, is brought to the health clinic for a routine checkup. To assess the child’s vision, the nurse should ask:
A. “Do you have any problems seeing different colors?”
B. “Do you have trouble seeing at night?”
C. “Do you have problems with glare?”
D. “How are you doing in school?”

39. The phallic stage in Freud’s psychosexual development is between age;
A. 1 to 3 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 3 to 6 years
D. 6 to 8 years

40. Who should sign the consent form of an 11-year old boy for operation
A. Parents after explanation
B. Relative of the child
C. Sister in charge
D. The child after careful explanation

41. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1

42. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is
A. Active natural
B. Active artificial
C. Passive natural
D. Passive artificial

43. The nurse should expect a patient with bradycardia to have a.....
A. Grossly irregular heart beat
B. Heart beat that has regular skipped beats
C. Heart rate of over 90 per minute
D. Heart rate of under 60 per minute

44. A 20-year-old client is being treated for pneumonia. He has a persistent cough and complains of severe pain when coughing. The most appropriate instruction the nurse would give the client to reduce discomfort is:
A. “hold in your cough as much as possible”
B. “splint your chest wall with a pillow for comfort”
C. “place the head of your bed flat to help with coughing”
D. “restrict fluids to help decrease the amount of sputum”

45. The nurse assists the patient to assume which position for insertion of gastrointestinal tube?
A. High fowler’s
B. Recumbent
C. Lateral
D. Supine

46. The first step in the management of toxic substances is
A. Administer appropriate antidote
B. Administer supportive and symptomatic care
C. Prevent further absorption
D. Remove obvious remnants

47. A common finding on most children with cardiac abnormalities
A. A family history of cardiac abnormalities
B. Cyanosis and clubbing of finger tips
C. Delayed physical growth
D. Mental retardation

48. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis?
A. Cerebral oedema
B. Deafness
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Paralysis

49. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the kids ward with suspected right sided pneumonia. The appropriate position for the child would be....
A. head of bed elevated 10°
B. in a prone position
C. in supine position
D. Turned on the right side

50. In leukaemia the following occur EXCEPT
A. Decreased platelets
B. Increase white blood cell production
C. Liver remains normal
D. Normal bone marrow is replaced with blast cells

51. The first aid treatment the nurse would give to the client with epistaxis include the following EXCEPT
A. Apply cold compression to the bridge of the nose
B. Ask client to breathe through the mouth
C. Grip the tip of the nose between the thumb and forefinger
D. Let the client sit up and gently throw the head backward

52. Nurse Donna is aware that the shift of body fluids associated with Intravenous administration of albumin occurs in the process of:
A. Filtration
B. Active transport
C. Osmosis
D. Diffusion

53. Oculomotor nerve is also called ------------
A. cranial nerve VII
B. cranial nerve III
C. cranial nerve I
D. cranial nerve IV

54. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing bronchopneumonia
A. Increase pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eye
D. Wheezing respiration

55. Which of the following parts will you use when giving an injection to a 6 month old
A. Anterior thigh
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Dorsogluteal
D. Lateral parts of the thigh

56. Before administering a tube feeding to an infant the nurse should
A. Irrigate the tube with water
B. Place the baby in the recumbent position
C. Provide the baby with a pacifier
D. Slowly instil 10ml of formula

57. Which technique is considered the gold standard for diagnosing DVT?
A. Ultrasound imaging
B. Venography
C. C. MRI
D. Doppler flow study

58. In caring for a child with superficial burns, the following actions are taken EXCEPT
A. Break the blisters before dressing
B. Clean the area
C. Cover area with sterile dressing
D. Serve analgesics

59. A black male client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client’s dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the....
A. mucous membranes.
B. lips.
C. nail beds.
D. earlobes.

60. All parents of children with the following condition will need counselling EXCEPT
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)
C. Haemophilia
D. ABO incompatibility

61. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing bronchopneumonia?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eyes
D. Wheezing

62. What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?
A. 7.35 to 7.45
B. 7.55 to 7.65
C. 7 to 7.49
D. 7.50 to 7.60

63. A child with acute leukaemia is put on prednisolone and other drugs. One side effect of prednisolone is
A. Alopecia
B. Anorexia
C. Mood changes
D. Weight loss

64. A sudden onset of enuresis in a previously dry child is indicative of
A. Emotional stress
B. Nephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis

65. When nursing a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse should be aware that one of these states may occur
A. Hypothermia
B. Hyperglycaemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Insulin coma

66. The most indicative symptoms of increased intracranial pressure includes Select one:
A. Weak, rapid pulse, normal B/P, intermitted fever
B. Slow bounding pulse, rising B/P, elevated temperature
C. Slow bounding pulse, fall in B/P, elevated temperature
D. Rapid weak pulse, fall B/P, low temperature

67. The basis or framework used to evaluate the patient’s response to nursing intervention can be found in the nursing
A. Care plan
B. Diagnosis
C. Goals
D. Interventions

68. When developing a plan of care for a hospitalized child, nurse Mary knows that children in which age group is most likely to view illness as a punishment for misdeeds?
A. Infancy
B. Preschool age
C. School age
D. Adolescence

69. After circumcision of a new born male, the most essential immediate post-operative thing to observe is:
A. Decreased urinary output
B. Haemorrhage
C. Infection
D. Shrill or piercing cry

70. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms of ……………
A. pulmonary oedema
B. pulmonary embolism
C. pneumonia
D. myocardial infarction

71. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38°C
D. Replace lose calories

72. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health.
A. daily in smaller quantities
B. periodically in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities

73. The most influential factor negatively affect the health status of children is
A. Chronic illness
B. Family predisposition to illness
C. Poverty
D. Prematurity

74. A client was given morphine for pains at 9:00am. At 9:45 am, the nurse assesses the client and notes a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/ minute. The nurse recognizes that the client is at highest risk for which of the following?
A. Respiratory arrest
B. Asthma attack
C. Arousal
D. Seizure

75. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
A. vertigo
B. blurred vision
C. ringing in the ears
D. headache

76. An infant should be able to hold its head erect at
A. 1 month
B. 2 month
C. 3 month
D. 4 month

77. To prevent orthostatic hypotension in a patient on methyldopa (Aldomet) the patient should be taught to....
A. Wear support hose continuously
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication
C. Sit on the edge of the bed a short time before getting up
D. Avoid tasks that require high,energy expenditure

78. One of the complications of malaria is.........
A. Fever
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Splenomegaly

79. Nursing care for a 7-year-old girl admitted with tetanus should be primarily direction towards
A. careful monitoring of urinary output
B. decreasing external stimuli
C. encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Giving adequate diet

80. The most earliest sign of sexual maturity in young girls between 9 to 12 years
A. Attention to grooming
B. Increase in size of the breast
C. Interest in opposite sex
D. The appearance of axillary and pubic hair

81. When examining a 2-year old child with an otoscope the nurse should.....
A. hold just the head and arms
B. hold the head straight
C. pull the pinna down and back
D. Pull the pinna up and back

82. The most important nursing intervention for a 3-year old child with nephrotic syndrome is
A. Encourage fluids
B. Maintaining bed rest
C. Prevention of infection
D. Regulating the diet

83. What action would a nurse take when a child refuses to take his medication?
A. Coax or plead with him to take it
B. Let him see other children taking their medication
C. Tell him that you will give him an injection
D. Urge him to take it to make him well

84. Which of the following disease condition in vitamin B1 deficiency
A. Beriberi
B. Mumps
C. Pellagra
D. Scurvy

85. The nurse is conducting a class for family members of clients diagnosed with Tuberculosis (TB).The nurse determines that the teaching is effective when the family Members’ state the disease is transmitted_____
A. by contaminated needles
B. by sexual contact
C. by droplets exhaled from an infected person
D. through contaminated eating utensils

86. The physician inserts a chest tube into a female client to treat a pneumothorax. The tube is connected to water-seal drainage. The nurse in-charge can prevent chest tube air leaks by:
A. Checking and taping All connections
B. Checking patency of the the chest tube
C. Keeping the head of bed slightly elevated
D. Keeping the chest drainage system below the level of the chest

87. Respiratory regulation of acids and bases involves:
A. Hydrogen
B. Hydroxide
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide

88. The nurse would assess the following in an infant with hydrocephalus
A. Abdominal girth
B. Fontanels
C. Urinary Output
D. Vital signs

89. The nurse is collecting data on a child who may have diabetes. Which laboratory value would help confirm a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?
A. A random plasma glucose level of 180mg/dl
B. A fasting plasma glucose level 126mg/dl
C. A fasting plasma glucose level of 110mg/dl
D. A 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test result of 140 mg/dl

90. The nurse is caring for a male client who recently underwent a tracheostomy. The first priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy is:
A. keeping his airway patent.
B. helping him communicate.
C. preventing him from developing an infection.
D. encouraging him to perform activities of daily living.

91. Which of the following findings is the best indication that fluid replacement for the client with hypovolemic shock is adequate?
A. Systolic blood pressure greater than 110 mmhg
B. Urine output greater than 30ml/hr
C. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmhg
D. Respiratory rate of 21 breaths/minute

92. Some babies develop slight jaundice from the third day after birth or later. This is called
A. hepatitis
B. jaundice in the infant
C. neonatal hepatitis
D. Physiological jaundice

93. The purpose of traction for children with fracture is to.....
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Prevent future fractures
D. Realign bone fragments

94. The physician should be informed the following observation in a 7 year old child with fractured femur with full leg cast.
A. Cast still damp and worm after 24 hours
B. Increase urinary output
C. Inability to move the toe
D. Pedal pulse of 90 bpm

95. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Chloride

96. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should
A. Call the paediatrician
B. Relief symptoms with drugs
C. Slow the flow rate
D. Stop the transfusion

97. When managing a patient with tetanus, nursing activities should be carried out ......
A. After the doctor has finished his rounds
B. Soon after sedation has been administered
C. During the period when sedation has its maximum effect
D. When patient has regained consciousness

98. A 9 year old boy with acute lymphocyte leukaemia having prednisolone and vincristine complain of constipation. What is the cause of the constipation
A. Enlarged spleen obstructing the bowel
B. Leukaemia mass obstructing the bowel
C. Side effect of vincristine
D. Toxic effect of prednisolone

99. Adolescent girl suffering from cancer is on antineoplastic drugs. The side effect of these drugs that requires early preparation of the patient is....
A. alopecia
B. constipation
C. generalized short-term paralysis
D. Retarded growth in height

100. The earliest sign of respiratory distress in a young infants
A. Cyanosis
B. Grunting
C. Rapid respiration
D. Sternal and subcostal retraction

101. As a general rule, after abdominal surgery, normal bowel sounds should be present before
A. Ambulation is begun
B. Dressing is change
C. IV fluids are discontinued
D. Pain medication is administered

102. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch. What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child

103. Hannah, age 12, is 7 months pregnant. When teaching parenting skills to an adolescent, the nurse knows that which teaching strategy is least effective?
A. Providing a one-on-one demonstration and asking a return demonstration, with a live infant model
B. Initiating a teenage parent support group with first and second-time mothers
C. Using audiovisual aids that show discussions of feelings and skills
D. Providing age-appropriate reading materials

104. Which of the following is the commonest complication likely to occur in patients diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Oesophageal atresia
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. thrombophlebitis

105. The nurse is aware that the most common assessment finding in a child with ulcerative colitis is:
A. Intense abdominal cramps
B. Profuse diarrhea
C. Anal fissures
D. Abdominal distention

106. Nursing assessment of a patient with liver failure would include observation of
A. Abnormal bleeding
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypotension
D. Hypothermia

107. A viral infection in a child characterized by red blotchy rash and Koplik’s spot is known as;
A. Chicken pox
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. Pertussis

108. An antidiurectic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by......
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Anterior pituitary gland
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Posterior pituitary gland

109. An observation consistent with complete-airway obstruction is:
A. Wheezes on auscultation
B. Gradual
C. Inability to cough
D. Loud crowing when attempting to speak

110. With peripheral arterial insufficiency, leg pain during rest can be reduced by:
A. Elevating the limb above the heart
B. Lowering the limb so it’s independent
C. Massaging the limb after application of cold compresses
D. Placing the limb in a plane horizontal to the body

111. One complication of otitis media is
A. mastoiditis
B. meningitis
C. parotitis
D. tonsillitis

112. One of the main functions of bile is to....
A. Help synthesize vitamins
B. Spilt protein
C. Produce an acid condition
D. Emulsify fats

113. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics

114. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in the child’s nursing care would be
A. Nutrition
B. Medication
C. Reassurance
D. Rest

115. A one –year-old girl is admitted to the ward diagnosed with dysentery. On discharge, what is the most important information the nurse must impart to the mother?
A. As soon as the child has diarrhoea place her on NPO for 8 hours
B. Do not wait for so long the next time before you bring the child to the hospital
C. Observe good hygiene to reduce faeco-oral spread
D. Start with anti-diarrhoea medication before bringing the child to hospital

116. For a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help maintain a patent airway?
A. Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing
B. Enforcing absolute bed rest
C. Administering prescribed sedatives regularly and in large amounts
D. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml/day

117. To facilitate communication with an 80-year-old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should Select one:
A. use sign language
B. speak loudly
C. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking
D. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking

118. The nurse suspects bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Coughs persistently
D. Swallows frequently

119. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of ----
A. burning in the ear
B. hearing loss
C. tinnitus
D. pruritus

120. During the teenage years, the nutrition focus emphasizes
A. fat intake
B. prevention of drug abuse
C. prevention of obesity
D. Self and body image

121. An injection consisting of bacteria cells that have been modified is
A. An antitoxin
B. Toxin
C. Toxoid
D. Vaccine

122. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT
A. Anaemia
B. Hookworm ova in the stool
C. Pus in the stool
D. Positive occult blood test

123. Molly, with suspected rheumatic fever, is admitted to the pediatric unit. When obtaining the child’s history, the nurse considers which information to be most important?
A. fever that started 3 days ago
B. Lack of interest in food
C. A recent episode of pharyngitis
D. Vomiting for 2 days

124. The side effects of oral iron therapy include I. Blackened stools II. Darkened teeth III. Darkening of the skin IV. Gastric irritation
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

125. A client diagnosed of Manieres disease should avoid ----------
A. salty foods
B. green vegetables
C. citrus foods
D. cereal products

126. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VII
D. Factor IV

127. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following EXCEPT
A. High fiber diet
B. Ice compressions for discomfort
C. Laxatives and stool softeners
D. Ligations of the hemorrhoids

128. At which age in the developmental stages is an infant expected to have first tooth eruption?
A. 3-4 months
B. 5-9 months
C. 10-12 months
D. 13-18 months

129. A client with acute is experiencing inspiratory and expiratory asthma wheezes and a decreased force expiratory volume. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?
A. Bronchodilators
B. Oral steroids
C. Inhaled steroids
D. Beta-adrenergic blockers

130. The vomitus in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because
A. The bile duct is obstructed
B. The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
C. The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the oesophagus
D. The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle

131. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children? I. Haemophilia II. Sickle cell disease III. Spherocytosis IV. Thalassaemia
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

132. The nurse is teaching a health promotion class in the community. Which of the following would the nurse encourage in order to prevent type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. A fat-free diet and nonimpact exercise three times weekly
B. A very low-carbohydrate diet with a moderate amounts of fat
C. Smoking cessation and a diet high in protein and fat
D. Maintenance of ideal weight and participation in regular exercise

133. The redirection of aggression from an unacceptable target to a more acceptable substitude is termed
A. Displacement
B. Sadism
C. Sublimation
D. Transference

134. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following Findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

135. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

136. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
A. Raised level of genes
B. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
C. Two haemoglobin s genes
D. A single haemoglobin s genes

137. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection
A. cough
B. dysphoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever

138. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms

139. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must...
A. A void diary products and red meat
B. Plan large, nutritious meals
C. Add spices to food for added flavour
D. Serve foods while they are very warm

140. A client diagnosed with eczema presents...
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
D. The nerve caused by a virus.

141. A nurse administering immunizations at health care clinic understands that an immunization will provide.
A. Natural immunity form the disease
B. Acquired immunity form the disease
C. Innate immunity form the disease
D. Protection from all diseases

142. Which is the following is a clinical manifestation associated with osteoarthritis.
A. Pain that is most severe later in the day
B. An elevated platelet
C. Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
D. Dull aching pain in the affected joint

143. In haemophilia there is a:
A. Fast clotting time
B. Delay clotting time
C. Absence of clotting
D. All of the above

144. In all forms of leukemia, there is a
A. Weight gain
B. Weight loss
C. Decreased leucocytosis
D. Increased appetite

145. Haemophilia B is also called:
A. Addision’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Christmas disease
D. Von Kelly’s disease

146. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the:
A. Skeletal tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Glandular tissue
D. Connective tissue

147. Dimentia often occurs in which of the following disease:
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Addison’s syndrome
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Haemorrhagic anaemia

148. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except...
A. Anaemia
B. Infection
C. Bleeding
D. Somnolence

149. Thromobocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to...
A. Infection
B. Somenolence
C. Anaemia
D. Bleeding

150. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will indicate to you that this complication has occurred?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Localised warmth and tenderness of the leg
C. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
D. Severe pain on extension of the extremities

151. Another name for hypercapnia is ...
A. Hypernopxia
B. Hypercarbin
C. Hyperdypsia
D. Hyperdyspnoea

152. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to ...
A. Rapid rate of absorption
B. Rapid rate of metabolism
C. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
D. Severe break down of blood cells.

153. While caring for a patient who has undergone surgery under general anaesthesia, the nurse should notify the surgeon if the...
A. Patient pushes the airway out
B. Patient has a snoring respiration
C. Respirations are regular but shallow
D. Systolic B/P drops from 130 to 100

154. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will indicate to you that this complication has occurred?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Localised warmth and tenderness of the leg
C. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
D. Severe pain on extension of the extremities

155. When caring for road traffic accident victims the nurse would prioritise care and provide treatment first for a patient with...
A. A fractured femur
B. A penetrating abdominal wound
C. Head injury
D. Ventricular fibrillation

156. The nurse would expect a patient in an early stage of severe Hypovolaemic shock to exhibit
A. A blood pressure 150/90
B. A distension of the neck vein
C. An apical heart rate of 142bpm
D. An output of 50ml urine per hour

157. In the immediate post-operative period following a splenectomy, the nurse should specifically observe the patient for...
A. Haemorrhage and abdominal distension
B. Intestinal obstruction and bleeding
C. Peritonitis and pulmonary complications
D. Shock and infections

158. As a result of a fractured rib the patient may develop...
A. Herniation of the diaphragm
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Pneumothorax
D. None of the above

159. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy the nurse must remember to...
A. Inflate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
B. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
C. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
D. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion

160. When irrigating the indwelling urinary catheter the nurse should...
A. Aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
B. Instil the fluid under high pressure
C. Obtain and use sterile equipment
D. Warm the solution to body temperature

161. Following extensive and prolonged surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient for depletion of which electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

162. Which of these is assessed to determine the cause of prostate cancer?
A. Blood urea estimation
B. Creatinine
C. Prostate fluid for WBC
D. Prostate specific antigen

163. A myotic agent would always
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diuresis
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

164. Which of the following data indicates a potential late complication associated with Bell’s palsy?
A. Partial facial paralysis
B. Excessive tearing
C. Negative electromyography
D. Degenerated taste buds

165. The common feature in a client with Alzheimer’s disease is:
A. Difficulty in performing new tasks
B. Problems with concrete thinking
C. Recent memory loss
D. Problems with learning

166. The following are forms of liver tests except
A. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
B. Serum glutamic–oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
C. Serum glutamiate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)
D. Serum metabolic rate (SMR)

167. Slow movement is described as:
A. Hypokenetics
B. Hypokenesia
C. Bradykenesia
D. Brady kinetics

168. In the body iron is more available in the form of.
A. myofils
B. haemosiderin
C. ferrous
D. ferritin

169. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder that results from deficiency of:
A. Factor IV only
B. Both factor IV and factor VIII
C. Factor VIII & IX
D. Both fact VIII and factor IV

170. Immature red blood cells are called:
A. Megakaryocytic
B. Foetal heamoglobin’s
C. Recticulocytes
D. Monocydtes

171. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F have:
A. More haemoglobin S
B. Less normal haemoglobin
C. Greater life span
D. Less life span

172. Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:
A. More cells are produced
B. Erythropoiesis is suppressed
C. Hyperplasia persists
D. Less cells are produced.

173. During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:
A. Chest, abdomen and joints.
B. Fingers, tongue and abdomen
C. Abdomen, breath and kidneys
D. Ear, throat and legs

174. The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:
A. Thromboplastin
B. Recticulocytes
C. Embolus
D. Rennin

175. Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from...
A. Hypertension
B. Down’s syndrome
C. Paterson Brown’s Kelly syndrome
D. Nephritic syndrome

176. Pernicious anaemia is also called:
A. Avitaminosis
B. Koilonychias
C. Addison’s anaemia
D. Hanson’s disease

177. The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:
A. 10 – 14ug
B. over 20 ug
C. 50 – 70ug
D. 3 – 4 ug

178. In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:
A. Factor IV
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII

179. During acute severe blood loss the body will:
A. inhibit erythropoiesis
B. reduce blood flow to the peripheral structures
C. substitute plasma with blood cells
D. increase haemolytic process

180. In the care of a patient with leukemia, the nurse must observe the patient for...
A. Eating of non-nutritious substances
B. Signs of dehydration and mental alertness
C. Signs of overhydration and pharyngitis
D. Bleeding tendencies and signs of infection

181. The presence of dysphagia and glossitis is referred to as...
A. Stevenson Johnson’s Syndrome
B. Plumber Vincent Syndrome
C. Browns Williams Syndrome
D. Paterson George Syndrome

182. In pancytopinia a combination of the following occurs: i. Thrombocytopenia, anoxmia, hopoxia ii. Thrombocytopenia, gluconaemia iii. Both anaemia and thrombocytopemia iv. Leukopenia, anaemia and thrombocytopemia
A. I, II III
B. II only
C. IV only
D. II, III and IV

183. The following are examples of haemolytic anaemias except...
A. Haemophilia
B. G6 P D
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Thalassaemia

184. In haemophiliacs, the swelling of the joints result from...
A. Infection
B. Bleeding
C. Bruising
D. Cholestremia

185. Acute leukemias show...
A. Mature and smaller than normal cells
B. Mature and larger than normal cells
C. Immature and smaller than normal cells
D. Immature and larger than normal cells

186. In Schilling test, urine is collected for:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 hour

187. In all forms of leukemia, there is a
A. Weight gain
B. Weight loss
C. Decreased leucocytosis
D. Increased appetite

188. A patient with pernicious anaemia may be given:
A. Antimetabolites
B. Aminoglycoides
C. Sulphonamides
D. Tranquilizers

189. Haemophilia B is also called:
A. Addision’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Christmas disease
D. Von Kelly’s disease

190. The ataxia that occurs in pernicious anaemia results from a disturbance in the
A. Skeletal tissue
B. Nervous tissue
C. Glandular tissue
D. Connective tissue

191. Dimentia often occurs in which of the following disease:
A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Addison’s syndrome
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Haemorrhagic anaemia

192. Leucopenia in a patient makes him prone to the following except...
A. Anaemia
B. Infection
C. Bleeding
D. Somnolence

193. Thromobocytopenia in a patient makes him or her prone to...
A. Infection
B. Somenolence
C. Anaemia
D. Bleeding

194. Acute myeloid leukemia is more common in children under 4 years.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

195. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in children under 10 years.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

196. The emergency care of a patient with aplastic anaemia include the following except:
A. Admission of the patient
B. Control of bleeding
C. Taking of blood specimen
D. Monitoring of oxygen replacement

197. The following factors enhanced the absorption of iron from the gut except:
A. Vitamin C
B. Gastric acidity
C. Moderate alcohol consumption
D. Achorhydria

198. Another name for hypercapnia is ...
A. Hypernopxia
B. Hypercarbin
C. Hyperdypsia
D. Hyperdyspnoea

199. In severe hyperthyroidism, the increased utilization of oxygen is due to ...
A. Rapid rate of absorption
B. Rapid rate of metabolism
C. Decrease rate of utilization of carbon dioxide
D. Severe break down of blood cells

200. A clinical syndrome characterized by choking and suffocating chest pain is described as...
A. Nocturnal dysponea
B. Angina pectoris
C. Cardiac asthma
D. Myocardial infarction

201. Among male patients receiving antihypertensive drugs the commonest side effect the nurse Should discuss with the client and his wife is ...
A. Nausea and dizziness
B. Sudden fall in blood pressure
C. Impotence
D. Dizziness

202. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Heparin

203. The action of aspirin is to ...
A. Decrease platelet aggregation
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
D. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis

204. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes for...
A. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
B. A painful defaecation
C. A frequent passage of watery stools
D. A prolonged constipation

205. After serving a sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse must ensure that client has which of the following most important items within easy reach...
A. vomit bowl
B. tissue
C. call bell
D. moist cloth

206. Days after abdominal surgery, the client’s wound dehisces. The safest nursing intervention when this occurs is to
A. Hold the abdominal contents in place with a sterile gloved hand
B. Approximate the wound edges with tapes
C. Cover the wound with sterile, moist saline dressing
D. Irrigate the wound with sterile saline

207. The nurse enters the room of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client’s oxygen is running at a rate of 6L per minute, the skin color is pink, and the respirations are 9 per minute and shallow.What is the nurse’s best initial action?
A. Position the client in a Fowler’s position.
B. Lower the oxygen rate
C. Call the physician
D. Take heart rate and blood pressure

208. The nurse is conducting an education session for a group of smokers in a “stop smoking” class. Which finding would the nurse state as a common symptom of lung cancer?
A. Cough or change in a chronic cough
B. Wheezing sound on inspiration
C. Foamy, blood-tinged sputum
D. Dyspnea on exertion

209. Which of the drug of choice for pain controls the patient with acute pancreatitis?
A. Codeine
B. Meperidine
C. NSAIDS
D. None of the above

210. The nurse is teaching the patient regarding his permanent artificial pacemaker. Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledge deficit about the artificial cardiac pacemaker?
A. have regular follow up care
B. take the pulse rate once a day, in the morning upon awakening
C. may engage in contact sports
D. may be allowed to use electrical appliances

211. Mario undergoes a left thoracotomy and a partial pneumonectomy. Chest tubes are inserted, and one-bottle water-seal drainage is instituted in the operating room. Mario is placed in Fowler’s position on either his right side or on his back to
A. Reduce incisional pain.
B. Equalize pressure in the pleural space.
C. Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.
D. Increase venous return

212. When suctioning mucus from a client’s lungs, which nursing action would be least appropriate?
A. Lubricate the catheter tip with sterile saline before insertion.
B. Suction until the client indicates to stop or no longer than 20 second
C. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning
D. Use sterile technique with a two-gloved approach

213. A nurse at the weight loss clinic assesses a client who has a large abdomen and a rounded face. Which additional assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client has Cushing’s syndrome rather than obesity?
A. posterior neck fat pad and thin extremities
B. pendulous abdomen and large hips
C. large thighs and upper arms
D. abdominal striae and ankle enlargement

214. The client presents with severe rectal bleeding, 16 diarrheal stools a day, severe abdominal pain, tenesmus and dehydration. Because of these symptoms the nurse should be alert for other problems associated with what disease?
A. Peritonitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Chrons disease

215. Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:
A. irrigate the T-tube frequently
B. changing the dressing at least BID
C. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
D. encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe

216. What is the best reason for the nurse in instructing the client to rotate injection sites for insulin?
A. Injection sites can never be reused
B. Lipodystrophic areas can result, causing erratic insulin absorption rates from these
C. Lipodystrophy can result and is extremely painful
D. Poor rotation technique can cause superficial hemorrhaging

217. The client underwent Billroth surgery for gastric ulcer. The drainage from his NGT is thick and the volume of secretions has dramatically reduced in the last 2 hours and the client feels like vomiting. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Discontinue the low-intermittent suction
B. Reposition the NGT by advancing it gently NSS
C. Irrigate the NGT with 50 cc of sterile
D. Notify the MD of your findings

218. A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. When teaching the client what to expect afterward, the nurse’s highest priority of information would be
A. Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially.
B. Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours
C. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will be done q2h.
D. Warm saline gargles will be done q 2h.

219. Valsalva maneuver can result in bradycardia. Which of the following activities will not stimulate Valsalva’s maneuver?
A. Gagging while toothbrushing
B. Use of stool softeners.
C. Enema administration
D. Lifting heavy objects

220. The nurse is attending a bridal shower for a friend when another guest, who happens to be a diabetic, starts to tremble and complains of dizziness. The next best action for the nurse to take is to:
A. Call the guest’s personal physician
B. Offer the guest a cup of coffee
C. Encourage the guest to eat some baked macaroni
D. Give the guest a glass of orange juice

221. A client with chronic heart failure has been placed on a diet restricted to 2000mg. of sodium per day. The client demonstrates adequate knowledge if behaviors are evident such as not salting food and avoidance of which food?
A. Eggs
B. Plain nuts
C. Canned sardines
D. Whole milk

222. Which one of the following is the primary source of progesterone in the later stages of pregnancy?
A. Placenta
B. Corpus luteum
C. Endometrium
D. Fetus

223. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
A. Days 15-28
B. Days 5-14
C. Days 1-5
D. None of the Above

224. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle, when would you expect the LH surge to occur?
A. Days 17-19
B. Days 14-16
C. Days 11-13
D. Days 8-10

225. Where is gonadotrophin-releasing hormone produced?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

226. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Hypothalamus

227. At which stage of the uterine cycle does the menstrual phase occur?
A. Days 14-28
B. Days 5-14
C. Days 1-5
D. None of the Above

228. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Progesterone
D. Oestrogen

229. The following are functions of progesterone except?
A. Initiation of the secretory phase of the endometrium
B. Inhibition of oestrogen production
C. Increase in basal body temperature
D. Inhibition of LH and FSH production

230. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
A. Days 5-14
B. Days 1-5
C. Days 14-28
D. None of the Above

231. Which of the following is not effect of increased levels of oestrogen in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
A. Thickening of the endometrium
B. Thinning of cervical mucous
C. Thickening of cervical mucous
D. None of the Above

232. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate? I. Decrease in basal body temperature II. Increase in basal body temperature III. Thickening of cervical mucous IV. Thinning of cervical mucous
A. I, II
B. IV only
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III

233. A client is being evaluated for cancer of the colon. In preparing the client for barium enema, the nurse should:
A. Give laxative the night before and a cleansing enema in the morning before the test
B. Place the client on CBR a day before the study
C. Render an oil retention enema and give laxative the night before
D. Instruct the client to swallow 6 radiopaque tablets the evening before the study

234. Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should assume the highest priority is:
A. encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
B. encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
C. irrigate the T-tube frequently
D. changing the dressing at least BID

235. Mr. Perez is in continuous pain from cancer that has metastasized to the bone. Pain medication provides little relief and he refuses to move. The nurse should plan to:
A. Handle him gently when assisting with required care
B. Reassure him that the nurses will not hurt him
C. Let him perform his own activities of daily living
D. Complete A.M. care quickly as possible when necessary

236. The client underwent Billroth surgery for gastric ulcer. The drainage from his NGT is thick and the volume of secretions has dramatically reduced in the last 2 hours and the client feels like vomiting. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Irrigate the NGT with 50 cc of sterile
B. Reposition the NGT by advancing it gently NSS
C. Notify the MD of your findings
D. Discontinue the low-intermittent suction

237. The client has a good understanding of the means to reduce the chances of colon cancer when he states:
A. “I will have an annual chest x-ray.”
B. “I will include more fresh fruits and vegetables in my diet.”
C. “I will exercise daily.”
D. “I will include more red meat in my diet.”

238. The action of aspirin is to ...
A. Decrease platelet aggregation
B. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
C. Resists the conduction of neurons activities
D. Decrease heart rate with increase formation of thrombosis

239. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when a patient is experiencing acute chest pain?
A. Administer the prescribed nitroglycerin and access pain level
B. Have the patient sit up and try to walk
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and relax
D. Delay any intervention until a cardiologist is available

240. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Propranolol
C. Nifedipine
D. Heparin

241. In a patient with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse observes for...
A. A colicky pain after a fatty meal
B. A painful defaecation
C. A frequent passage of watery stools
D. A prolonged constipation

242. Calcium channel blockers act on blood vessels to ...
A. Decrease the force of contraction
B. Increase thrombosis formation
C. Dilate coronary and peripheral vessels
D. Decrease the preload

243. Prior to abdominal paracentesis for a client with ascites, the first action of the nurse is ...
A. Put the client in a fowler’s position
B. Measure the weight of the client
C. Make sure the bladder is empty
D. Take the client’s temperature every quarter hourly.

244. In a client with a diabetic coma, the nurse must observe patient for...
A. The presence of sugar content in the urine
B. abnormal increase blood glucose
C. Polydypsia
D. Polyphagia

245. Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to relief pain of leukemic patient ...
A. Metformin
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Morphine
D. Doxorubicn

246. In a patient diagnosed with leukemia, the leucocyte count usually..
A. Rises above normal range
B. Is within normal range
C. Is below normal range
D. Is difficult to be determined

247. Before a nurse serves digoxin to a client, she should .
A. Cheek the blood pressure
B. Check the pulse rate
C. Cheek the urine output
D. Cheek the respiratory rate

248. The most widely used method of administering drugs is ...
A. Rectal administration
B. Parenteral administration
C. Oral administration
D. Nasal inhalation

249. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Luteneizing hormone (LH)

250. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life?
A. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)
B. Dyhydrotestosterone
C. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate (DHEA-S)
D. Testosterone

251. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?
A. Cervical mucus changes
B. Secretion of the Skene’s gland
C. The action of the doderlein bacillus
D. Secretion of the bartholins gland

252. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following?
A. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health
B. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
C. Preventing further complications from developing
D. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills

253. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed to their complexity?
A. Limitation of available options
B. Support for one viable action
C. Advancement in technology
D. Consistent desirable standards

254. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the?
A. Fossa Navicularis
B. Mons veneris
C. Labia majora
D. Labia minora

255. The vas deferens is a:
A. Site of spermatozoa production
B. Conduit of spermatozoa
C. Passageway of sperm
D. Storage for spermatozoa

256. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:
A. 20 to 100/ml
B. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml
C. 100 to 200/ml
D. 20 to 100 million/ml

257. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur?
A. Secretory phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Ischemic phase

258. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase?
A. Proliferative phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Luteal phase
D. Ischemic phase

259. The nurse’s first action should be to:
A. Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area
B. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
C. Call the physician
D. Check the FHR

260. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares states that it is “brown-tinged”. This indicates that:
A. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress
B. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
C. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
D. The fetus had infection

261. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per day?
A. IUD (Intra-uterine device)
B. Diaphragm
C. Cervical cap
D. Oral contraceptives

262. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse?
A. 28 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours

263. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion?
A. sperm count
B. sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume

264. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for several years to have another child. Which of the following terms would describe the situation?
A. Primary Infertility
B. Secondary Infertility
C. Irreversible infertility
D. Sterility

265. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor?
A. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec
B. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Increased restlessness

266. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?
A. Nutritional
B. Environmental
C. Mechanical
D. Medical

267. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the condition is known as:
A. Placenta succenturiata
B. Placenta marginata
C. Fenestrated placenta
D. Placenta Circumvallata

268. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
A. lining of the GI tract
B. brain
C. liver
D. skeletal system

269. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is termed:
A. Lateral insertion
B. Velamentous insertion
C. Battledore insertion
D. Central insertion

270. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?
A. deciduas
B. amniotic fluid
C. fetus
D. membranes

271. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you ask?
A. first
B. last
C. third
D. second

272. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegle’s rule what is her EDC?
A. August 22, 2003
B. August 18, 2003
C. July 22, 2003
D. February 22, 2003

273. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is:
A. Maculopapular rash
B. Jaundice
C. Urinary retention
D. Urethral discharge

274. In providing education to your clients, you should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is:
A. Premarital serological screening
B. Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
C. On going sex education about preventive behaviors
D. Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

275. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the disease are at risk of developing:
A. Heart and CNS damage
B. Cervical cancer
C. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
D. Sterility

276. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the following symptoms?
A. Dysuria
B. Urinary dribbling
C. A pinpoint rash on the penis
D. Lesion on the palms and soles

277. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:
A. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Ulceration of the cervix
D. Endometrial polyps

278. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take?
A. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months
B. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts
C. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
D. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test

279. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to have Pap-smear by her physician. She asked you what the test is for. Your appropriate response is:
A. It’s a screening for cervical cancer
B. It’s a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive tract
C. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection
D. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not.

280. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that:
A. Presence of malignant cells
B. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
C. Normal finding
D. Possible inflammation or infections

281. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease:
A. Is unaware that they have it
B. Have milder form of the disease than most men
C. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
D. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact

282. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis?
A. Jaundice and flank pain
B. Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills
C. Burning sensation on urination
D. Polyuria and nocturia

283. You have a patient that might have a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the patient suggests that a UTI is likely?
A. “I pee a lot.”
B. “It burns when I pee.”
C. “I go hours without the urge to pee.”
D. “My pee smells sweet.”

284. Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium)?
A. If the urine turns orange-red, call the doctor.
B. Take phenazopyridine just before urination to relieve pain.
C. Once painful urination is relieved, discontinue prescribed antibiotics.
D. After painful urination is relieved, stop taking phenazopyridine

285. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A. A 35 y.o. woman with a fractured wrist
B. A 20 y.o. woman with asthma
C. A 50 y.o. postmenopausal woman
D. A 28 y.o. with angina

286. You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal dialysis. What should you do when you notice the return fluid is slowly draining?
A. Check for kinks in the outflow tubing.
B. Raise the drainage bag above the level of the abdomen.
C. Place the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position.
D. Ask the patient to cough.

287. What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal failure undergoing peritoneal dialysis?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 2 to 3 hours

288. A 30 y.o. female patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal arteriovenous fistula in place. What do you do to prevent complications associated with this device?
A. Insert I.V. lines above the fistula.
B. Avoid taking blood pressures in the arm with the fistula.
C. Palpate pulses above the fistula.
D. Report a bruit or thrill over the fistula to the doctor.

289. Your patient becomes restless and tells you she has a headache and feels nauseous during hemodialysis. Which complication do you suspect?
A. Infection
B. Disequilibrium syndrome
C. Air embolism
D. Acute hemolysis

290. Your patient is complaining of muscle cramps while undergoing hemodialysis. Which intervention is effective in relieving muscle cramps?
A. Increase the rate of dialysis.
B. Infuse normal saline solution.
C. Administer a 5% dextrose solution.
D. Encourage active ROM exercises.

291. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan?
A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.
B. Take frequent baths.
C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.
D. Keep fingernails short and clean.

292. Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi?
A. Maintain bed rest
B. Increase dietary purines
C. Restrict fluids
D. Strain all urine

293. An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which would most likely be in this student’s health history?
A. Renal calculi
B. Renal trauma
C. Recent sore throat
D. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis

294. Several problems and needs may be identified in a client at home, one of these will help you meet your goals.
A. Decide
B. Evaluate
C. Implement
D. Prioritize

295. Which of these activities can be performed on client in the home? I. Checking blood pressure II. Medical examination III. Urine testing IV. Wound dressing
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

296. When caring for the aged in the home the nurse should bear in mind that there is less ability of the wound to heal because of:
A. Degeneration of the tissues
B. Diminished blood circulation
C. Inadequate nutrition
D. Inelasticity of the skin

297. Reasons for nursing the sick in the home may include the following: I. Decongest health care institution II. Involve family members in the care III. Prevent complication of illness IV. Use available and familiar resources
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

298. What advice would you give a 70-year-old man who complains to you about having poor sight?
A. Ask if there is a family history of blindness
B. Put eye ointment on it if it itches
C. Visit a health facility for check up
D. Wash eye regularly with clean water

299. After immunizing a child with polio vaccine, what will you tell the mother for the vaccine to dissolve well?
A. Close the mouth of the child for 30 minutes
B. Do not breastfeed for the next 30 minutes
C. Open the mouth of the child to see the vaccine
D. Prevent the babies from crying and spitting

300. The recommended schedule for immunization considers: I. Age of starting the immunization II. Doses and intervals between them III. Strategies used for the immunization IV. Route of administration of the vaccines
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. II, III, IV

301. When you are asked by a client how vaccination is different from immunization you would explain that vaccination is the:
A. Introduction of antigens into the body
B. Prevention of specific childhood diseases
C. Process of ensuring proper development of the child
D. Process of producing antibodies in the body

302. One of these vaccines would be destroyed when it is left to freeze:
A. DPT/Hlb, Hep B
B. Measles vaccine
C. OPV vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine

303. Ice packs are necessary equipment for:
A. Monitoring cumulative heat exposure
B. Maintaining vaccine potency
C. Observing colour change of vaccines
D. Preventing the melting of vaccines

304. The objectives of family planning in this country include: I. Assisting people to stop having children II. Manage reproductive tract infection III. Promote dual protection for pregnancy and STD’s IV. Provide information, education and counselling
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III

305. People are becoming more interested in natural family planning because it is based on:
A. Prevents sperm from entering the uterus
B. Protecting against HIV/AIDS in both man and woman
C. Creating a barrier between the sperm and egg
D. Changes that occur in a woman’s cycle

306. Some of the disadvantages of the combined oral contraceptive pill are: I. Acne on the face II. Decreased libido III. Depression IV. Weight gain
A. II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III

307. The Depo Provera is a progestin only injectable which acts by: I. Changing the lining of the uterus II. Diluting the consistency of the semen III. Suppressing or stopping ovulation IV. Thickening the cervical mucus
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV

308. One of these is NOT an advantage of Home Visiting:
A. Defaulters of health services are traced
B. Creates good working relationship
C. Ensures continuity of care for clients
D. Provides opportunity for families to share experiences

309. During physical examination of a SIX-month malnourished child, in the home, the skin will be inspected for:
A. Boils
B. Spots
C. Rashes
D. Turgor

310. In communicable disease control, the factor whose presence leads to a pathogenic disease is the:
A. Contact
B. Carrier
C. Host
D. Agent

311. For an infectious disease to develop these factors must be present: I. Capable agent II. Portal of entry III. Resistance IV. Susceptible host
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

312. The primary function of the Community Health Officer (CHO) in a CHPS Zone is:
A. Health talk
B. Home visiting
C. Immunization
D. Weighing

313. In which stage of development of the plasmodium in the cycle of malaria is the mosquito infective?
A. Merozoite
B. Sporozoite
C. Oocyte
D. Gametocyte

314. These measures can control and prevent Bilhaziasis I. Boiling of water from river sources II. Destroying river snails at river banks III. Identification and treatment of cases IV. Protecting water bodies from contamination
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

315. In disease surveillance, a situation where there is reduction in the incidence and prevalence of a disease is:
A. Control
B. Elimination
C. Eradication
D. Prevention

316. A client who is suspected to have the AIDS disease is confirmed by:
A. CD4 test
B. OraQuick and SD Bioline tests
C. HIV test
D. ZDV test

317. The type of immunity derived while the child is in the mother’s uterus is called:
A. Active artificial immunity
B. Active natural immunity
C. Passive artificial immunity
D. Passive natural immunity

318. Which of these diseases confers a lasting immunity to the individual: I. Chickenpox II. Diphtheria III. Measles IV. Poliomyelitis
A. I, II, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, III, IV

319. Personal protection of the worker against exposure to occupational risk is to:
A. Ensure collective bargaining
B. Monitor daily schedule of workers
C. Provide protective devices
D. Advise on the work environment

320. Periodic medical examination for food vendors should be carried out at least:
A. Three times a year
B. Once a year
C. Once every two years
D. Two times a year

321. In the current strategy for managing pulmonary tuberculosis, the disease is usually confirmed by
A. Chest X-ray
B. Clinical examination
C. Sputum examination
D. Ultra sound

322. When a person acquires a level of immunity where body cells are been stimulated to produce the antibodies, he/she is said to have
A. Passive immunity
B. Herd immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Active immunity

323. In conducting a home visit a malnourished child, Adisa will require one of the following
A. BP apparatus
B. Protein densed food
C. Vaccines
D. Weighing scale

324. A community practices indiscriminate defaecation. Which of the following will be the best option in solving the problem
A. Communal ownership of latrine
B. Individual ownership
C. Institution of sanction
D. Provision of paid latrine

325. Which of the following factors would you consider when choosing clothing for an 80year old lady?
A. Availability, washability, and colour
B. Colour, comfort and cost
C. Washability, comfort and colour
D. Cost, comfort and washability

326. An active child who has a thin limbs, wrinkle skin, and cries a lot is said to be suffering from
A. Beriberi
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Marasmus
D. Marasmic-Kwashiorkor

327. One of the signs of hookworm infestation is
A. Anaemia
B. Malaena stool
C. Black water fever
D. Haematuria

328. A susceptible person is said to be an individual who has
A. Average resistance
B. Little or no resistance
C. More or adequate resistance
D. More natural resistance

329. Which of the following methods of purification would you recommend for community with a problem of guinea worm infestation?
A. Boiling
B. Chlorination
C. Filtering
D. Sedimentation

330. How would you handle an 18year old who walks into your clinic for hormonal contraceptive?
A. Counsel her on all the methods
B. Give her condoms since she is young
C. Supply the hormonals
D. Tell her to abstain from sex

331. Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the black patches on bread?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Virus

332. Illness following entrance of infection into the body depends on I. Adequate fluid intake II. constitution of host III. Emotional health IV. Wearing of gowns and masks
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

333. To promote lactation in a woman who has just delivered, she should; I. Avoid demand feeding II. Breastfeed frequently III. Massage the breast IV. Relax her mind
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

334. Choice of clothing for a pregnant women depends on the
A. Choice
B. Diet
C. Taste
D. Weather

335. In the administration of intravenous fluids as prescribed which of the following would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy.
A. Mental status
B. Peripheral pulse
C. Urine output
D. Vital signs

336. A client is being treated in the burn unit for second and third degree burns, the physician orders include the application of silver sulfadiazine cream. The best way for the nurse to apply this
A. Sterile dressings soaked in saline
B. Sterile tongue depressor
C. Sterile gloved hand
D. Sterile cotton-topped application

337. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:
A. Endometrial polyps
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Ulceration of the cervix
D. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes

338. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeselike vaginal discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have:
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Syphilis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Moniliasis

339. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who is post-operative and experiencing nausea and vomiting?
A. Encourage the patient to drink clear fluids immediately
B. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed
C. Encourage the patient to eat solid food to promote recovery
D. Keep the patient in a supine position to prevent aspiration

340. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent?
A. multiparous women
B. before menopause
C. after menopause
D. nulliparous waman

341. The compulsion to drink alcoholic beverages is termed as:
A. Dipsomania
B. Dysgeusia
C. Tolerance
D. Alcohol abuse

342. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin B12
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1

343. Guinea worm disease is described as...
A. air and vector borne
B. food borne
C. vector borne
D. air borne only

344. Tetanus bacilli enter the body through...
A. the oral cavity
B. the oral route
C. the site of the wound
D. were there is a dead tissue

345. Recovery from yellow fever is followed by ...
A. a temporal immunity
B. an initial immunity
C. no immunity
D. lasting immunity

346. The tetanus bacteria live predominantly in ...
A. air
B. soil
C. water
D. air and water

347. The causative organism of typhoid fever is called
A. Salmonella typhoid bacterial
B. Salmonella typhi bacterial
C. Salmonella fever bacterial
D. Salmonella typhus bacterial

348. The causative organism of yellow fever is called
A. Flavivirus
B. Vibrocholerea
C. AedesEgypti
D. AedesEgypti mosquito

349. The main factor that can help you detect a client with hypertension during home visit is
A. Dyspnoea
B. High blood pressure
C. Severe headache
D. Weakness of the body

350. Adults learn differently from children because their learning is mostly directed by
A. Experience
B. Reading
C. Maturity
D. Understanding

351. In the process of communication where the sender’s intent and ideas are made meaningful to the sender is
A. Coding
B. Decoding
C. Encoding
D. Feedback

352. Nursing care for a 7-year-old girl admitted with tetanus should be primarily direction towards
A. careful monitoring of urinary output
B. decreasing external stimuli
C. encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Giving adequate diet

353. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch. What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child

354. When teaching an adolescent with Type I diabetes about dietary management the nurses should instruct him to
A. Always carry a concentrated form of glucose
B. Eat all meals at home
C. Weigh all food on a gram scale
D. Let parent prepare food separately for him

355. Adolescent girl suffering from cancer is on antineoplastic drugs. The side effect of these drugs that requires early preparation of the patient is
A. alopecia
B. constipation
C. generalized short-term paralysis
D. Retarded growth in height

356. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38oC
D. Replace lose calories

357. Which of the following is a common sign of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?
A. Increased thirst and urination
B. Shaking, sweating, and confusion
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Dry, flushed skin

358. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the kids ward with suspected right sided pneumonia. The appropriate position for the child would be
A. head of bed elevated 10 degrees
B. in a prone position
C. in supine position
D. Turned on the right side

359. The purpose of traction for children with fracture is to
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Prevent future fractures
D. Realign bone fragments

360. To promote absorption of an iron supplement it should be administered
A. During meal
B. Two hours after meals with orange juice
C. Immediately before meals
D. Two hours after meals with milk

361. You are on night duty and a patient who has been on the ward for 3 days suddenly becomes aggressive, breaks a louver blade and stabs himself with it. The patient bleeds to death. What kind of report would you write on this patient?
A. Incident
B. Twenty- four hour
C. Nurses
D. Daily

362. Kwame, a catatonic schizophrenic patient has been pacing up and down on the ward fro the past one hour
A. help client to relax by engaging him in ward activities
B. monitor client closely
C. restrain client to prevent exhaustion and dehydration
D. serve client with his medication

363. A patient who normally complains that her food is poisoned and always insist that the nurse taste the food before she eats has ...personality.
A. Antisocial
B. Asthenic
C. Paranoid
D. Schizoid

364. Clinical features of panic attack Includes I. feeling of chocking II. Numbness III. a state of shock
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I,II and III

365. A patient with bulimia nervosa frequent secret eating is usually followed by feeling of
A. anger
B. depression
C. humiliation
D. unreality

366. Maturation results from the aging process whereas learning
A. Is produced by experience
B. occurs in adult
C. results from heredity
D. results from good nutrition

367. In adolescence, the term 'growth spurt' refers to
A. a type of behavior Indicating a parahillia
B. Confusional state characterized by memory loss
C. the rapid physical development
D. The identity confusion experienced in early sexual stimulation

368. A client is scheduled for routine glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test. What is important for the nurse to tell the client before this test?
A. Drink only water after midnight and come to the clinic early in the morning
B. Eat a normal breakfast and be at the clinic 2 hours because of the multiple blood draws
C. Expect to be at the clinic for several hours because of the multiple blood draws
D. Come to the clinic at the earliest convenience to have blood drawn

369. It is important for the nurse to teach the client that metformin (Glcucophage):
A. May cause nocturia
B. Should be taken at night
C. Should be taken with meals
D. May increase the effects of aspirin

370. When caring for client in thyroid crisis, the nurse would question an order for:
A. IV fluid
B. Prophylthiouracil
C. A hyperthermia blanket
D. Propanolol (Inderal)

371. A client is walking down the hall and begins to experience vertigo. What is the most important nursing action when this occurs?
A. Have the client sit in a chair and lower his head
B. Administer meclizine (Antivert) PO
C. Assist the client to sit or lie down
D. Assess if the occurrence is vertigo or dizziness

372. When a patient is semi-conscious, the nurse should expect the patient to be unable to
A. Control elimination
B. Hear voices
C. Move spontaneously
D. React to painful stimuli

373. Soon after being admitted for head injuries a patient’s temperature risen up to 39.4OC. This suggests injury to the
A. Hypothalamus
B. Temporal lobe
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Thalamus

374. To prevent the development of contractures in a patient with spinal injury, the nurse should give careful consideration to
A. Active exercise
B. Deep massage of the limbs
C. Proper use of fracture board
D. Proper positioning

375. Which of the following diets would be appropriate for the patient with ulcerative colitis
A. High fibre, low fat
B. Low protein, high calorie
C. High carbohydrate, low sodium
D. Low residue, high protein

376. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ulcerative colitis is
A. Diarrhoea related to hypermotility
B. High risk for infection
C. Ineffective coping
D. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement

377. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following EXCEPT
A. Ligation of the haemorrhoids
B. Ice compresses for discomfort
C. High fibre diet
D. Laxatives and stool softeners

378. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by
A. Ischemia of the heart muscles
B. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
C. Blocking in the coronary veins
D. Arterial spasm

379. The ideal fluid replacement for the patient with an Extra cellular fluid volume deficit is:
A. A plasma expander
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Isotonic

380. Without any pathological lesions, a patient's respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B. Lactic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen

381. An ambu bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored

382. First postop day after a right lower lobe (RLL) lobectomy, the client breathes and coughs but has difficulty raising mucus. What indicates that the client is not adequately clearing secretions?
A. A few scattered crackles on RLL on auscultation
B. PCO2 increases from 35-45 mm Hg
C. Decrease in forced vital capacity
D. Chest x-ray film shows right sided pleural fluid

383. What nursing observations indicate that the cuff on an endotracheal tube is leaking?
A. An increase in peak pressure on the ventilator
B. Client is able to speak
C. Increased swallowing efforts by client
D. Increased crackles (rales) over left lung field

384. What medication would the nurse anticipate giving a client with Meniere’s dse?
A. Nifedipine
B. Amoxicillin
C. Propanolol
D. Hydrochloride (Hydro DIURIL)

385. As a result of a fractured rib the patient may develop
A. Herniation of the diaphragm
B. Pneumothorax
C. Scoliosis
D. Obstructive lung disease

386. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy must remember to
A. Inflate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
B. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
C. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
D. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion

387. Following extensive and prolonged surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient for depletion of which electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

388. Which of these is assessed to determine the course of prostate cancer?
A. Blood urea estimation
B. Creatinine
C. Prostate fluid for WBC
D. Prostate specific antigen

389. Varicose veins are usually the result of
A. Atherosclotic plaques along the veins
B. Defective valves within the veins
C. Eternal compression of the muscles of the leg
D. The formation of thrombophlebitis

390. Which of the following will suggest to the nurse that a patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
A. Brushing his skin continuously
B. Gets up suddenly and stands at attention
C. Repeats a sentence over and over again
D. Sings a song as he walks down the hall

391. When a patient on admission refuses food the nurse should:
A. Finds out the reason
B. Inform patient’s daughter
C. Leaves him alone until he is hungry
D. Passes NG tube and feed him through it

392. When a patient has a grand mal seizure, which one of the following tasks has the highest priority?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Check blood pressure and pulse
C. Establish patent airway
D. Removes the top sheet

393. Which of the following is an open-ended question?
A. Do you need anything from the doctor?
B. How do you feel today?
C. How is your dressing and the pain?
D. Have you been getting visitors?

394. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when administering a medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A. Crush all medications together and administer at once
B. Ensure the NG tube is patent by checking for any blockages
C. Administer the medication with a large volume of water to avoid clogging
D. Mix the medication with a high-fat liquid to aid absorption

395. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for a patient receiving intravenous (IV) fluids?
A. Assessing the patient's nutritional intake
B. Checking the patient’s blood glucose levels every 4 hours
C. Ensuring the patient is ambulating every hour
D. Monitoring the IV site for signs of infection or infiltration

396. What is the primary purpose of using reverse isolation for a patient?
A. To prevent the spread of infection from the patient to others
B. To reduce the patient's anxiety and stress
C. To protect the patient from external infections
D. To provide emotional support to the patient’s family

397. Which of the following is the most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube?
A. Ensure the tube is clamped during patient ambulation
B. Monitor for bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the drainage system
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
D. Remove the chest tube as soon as drainage decreases

398. A patient is experiencing a sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety following a surgical procedure. Which of the following should be the nurse's first action?
A. Place the patient in a supine position
B. Obtain a chest X-ray
C. Prepare for intubation
D. Administer oxygen as prescribed

399. The following are stages of grand mal epilepsy EXCEPT
A. Aura
B. Focal
C. Clonic
D. Tonic

400. Jane developed reddened rashes on the cheek which later involve the arm flexures, leg and gams. Which of the following has she got?
A. Impetigo
B. Psoriasis
C. Eczema
D. Scabies

401. Permanent dentition begins at around
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

402. Which of the following activities will the child NOT do at 3 months?
A. Follows a light to the periphery
B. Has taste preference
C. Listens to sounds
D. Smile in response to a person or an object

403. Which of the following parts will you use when giving IM injection to a 5-month-old child?
A. Anterior thigh
B. Deltoid
C. Dorsogluteal
D. Lateral part of the thigh

404. An infant should be able to sit fairly well unsupported at
A. 4 months
B. 7 months
C. 3 months
D. 9 months

405. A viral disease that affects the motor cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is
A. Chicken pox
B. Herpes zoster
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Poliomyelitis

406. A 7-year old had tonsillectomy done. He is still unconscious but is swallowing frequently. This is a sign of
A. Bleeding
B. Anoxia
C. Thirst
D. Hypoxia

407. The primary indication of prednisone in the treatment of leukaemia in children is that it
A. Decrease inflammation
B. Increases appetite and sense of well being
C. Reduces irradiation oedema
D. Suppresses mitosis is lymphocyte

408. The most important complication of mumps in male children is
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Diphtheria
C. Renal disorders
D. Sterility

409. A 5-month old infant has diarrhoea and is on IV fluids. The rate of flow must be observed often by the nurse to
A. Avoid IV infiltration
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent air from entering the tube
D. Replace all fluid lost

410. When emphysema is present there is a decrease oxygen supply because of
A. Infectious obstructions
B. Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis

411. The triage Nurse is assessing a group of casualties of a road traffic accident (RTA). Which of the following injuries would require PROMPT action? Select One:
A. A greenstick fracture of rib
B. A compression fracture of the spine
C. A comminuted fracture of femoral action
D. None of the Above

412. A 60 year old woman has reported to the hospital with the complaint of urinary incontinence. Which of the following is true? Select One:
A. Obesity is a risk factor for urinary incontinence
B. Pessaries not recommended for stress urinary incontinence in post-menopausal woman
C. Topical vaginal estrogen therapy can contribute to urinary incontinence
D. None of the Above

413. An autograft is taken from the client’s left leg. The nurse should care for the donor site by: Select one:
A. Keeping the site clean and dry
B. Applying a pressure dressing
C. Covering it with an occlusive dry dressing
D. None of the Above

414. A female patient suffers adult respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The patient’s condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator, alarm sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm? Select One:
A. Kinking of the ventilator tubing
B. An endotracheal cuff leak
C. A change in the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm
D. None of the Above

415. A 48 year old female patient undergoes open repair of a femur fracture sustained in a motor vehicle collision. Three days post-op, she develops low grade fever, tachypnea, pleuritic chest pain, and a cough. CT scan reveals pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is most likely to be associated with this condition? Select One:
A. Positive D-dimer test
B. Decreased A-a gradient
C. Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure
D. Options B and C

416. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn shortly after birth for which of the following reasons? Select One:
A. To stop hemorrhage
B. To treat infection
C. To facilitate clotting
D. All except C

417. Dr. Jones prescribes albuterol sulfate (Proventil) for a patient with newly diagnose asthma. When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse should explain that it may cause: Select One:
A. Lethargy
B. Nervousness
C. Nasal congestion
D. None of the Above

418. A patient has been put on IV solution of 0.45% sodium chloride. This solution regarding human blood is: Select one:
A. Isometric solution
B. Hypotonic solution
C. Hypertonic solution
D. All of the above

419. Which of these may be given if urinary output is inadequate (less than 25mls an hour) in a 30 year old man with burns, despite adequate fluid replacement Select one:
A. Ringers lactate
B. Normal saline
C. Mannitol
D. None of the Above

420. A disease occurring when a clostridium organism enters a wound producing a toxin that causes crepitus is: Select one:
A. Anthrax
B. Gas gangrene
C. Tetanus gangrene
D. All of the Above

421. A 52 year old man spilled hot coffee on a small portion on his thigh. The burn blisters are painful. The burn blanches on examination. Which of the following is the best treatment for the burn? Select One:
A. A topical triamcinolone
B. Prophylactic antibiotics
C. Polysporin with Mepitel dressing
D. None of the Above

422. A nurse is caring for a client who underwent surgical repair of detached retina in the eye. Which of the following interventions is the nurse not required to perform? Select One:
A. Orient the client to his environment
B. Discourage bending down
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
D. None of the Above

423. A client is scheduled to undergo an abdominal perineal resection with a permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would be an anticipated part of the client’s preoperative care? Select One:
A. Administer neomycin sulfate the evening before surgery
B. Keep the client NPO for 24 hrs before surgery
C. Advise the client to limit physical activity
D. Options A and C

424. Following a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer of the stomach the patient develops dumping syndrome. The Nurse would explain this to the junior Nurse as: Select One:
A. Nausea due to a full stomach
B. Buildup of faeces and gas within the large intestine
C. A rapid passage of osmotic fluid into the jeunum
D. None of the Above

425. Mr. Eshun has had his colostomy done and he has been transferred to the recovery ward. The immediate post-operative care for a patient who has had a colostomy performed should include: Select one:
A. Limiting fluid intake for several days
B. Teach the patient how to change the colostomy bag
C. Keeping the skin around the stoma clean and dry
D. None of the Above

426. The following are cytotoxic drugs for the treatment of malignant tumors EXCEPT: Select One:
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Scopolamine
D. None of the Above

427. Following an amputation, the nurse can help a patient prepare the residual limb for prosthesis by encouraging him to: Select One:
A. Change the residual limb of the bed frequently
B. Abduct the residual limb when ambulating
C. Periodically press the end of the residual limb against a pillow
D. Options A and C

428. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will indicate to you that this complication has occurred? Select One:
A. Severe pain on extension of the extremities
B. Localized warmth and tenderness of the leg
C. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
D. None of the Above

429. A patient who has had splenectomy would be expected to complain of? Select one:
A. Excessive moist respiration
B. Pain on expiration
C. Both A and B
D. Pain on inspiration

430. Nurses have knowledge that a skin graft that is taken from another portion of a patient’s own body is called: Select one:
A. A xenograft
B. An autograph
C. An allograft
D. None of the Above

431. The clinic nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client using a Snellen chart. Which of the following identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test? Select one:
A. Both eyes are assessed together, followed by the assessment of the right and then the left eye.
B. The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested.
C. The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40ft. from the chart and is asked to read the largest line on the chart.
D. None of the Above

432. When there is a disaster involving a number of people which of the following will need a priority care? Those with; Select one:
A. Significant perforation or penetrating abdominal wounds
B. Severe lacerations involving open fracture of major bones
C. Partial thickness of 10% of the body
D. None of the Above

433. The nurse is caring for a patient 23hours after abdominal surgery. Which of the following patient data collection findings would require the nurse to take action? Select one:
A. Abdominal distention
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in four quadrants
C. Report of flatus
D. None of the Above

434. When caring of a patient with Naso-gastric tube attached to suction, the nurse should: Select one:
A. Use sterile technique when irrigating the tube
B. Withdraw the tube quickly when decompression is terminated
C. Irrigate the tube with normal saline
D. Options A and C

435. The family of a client who has been burned asks at what point the client will no longer be at greater risk for infection. What is the nurse’s best response? Select One:
A. “When the burn wounds are closed.”
B. “When fluid remobilization has started.”
C. “As soon as his albumin level returns to normal.”
D. None of the Above

436. The rational of wearing face mask by the surgical team is to... Select one:
A. Minimize the possibility of wound infection
B. Promote the sterile state of the theater room
C. Reduce the risk of transmitting a cold to the patient
D. None of the Above

437. The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client with appendicitis. The client’s mother is a Jehovah’s Witness and refuses to sign the blood permit. What nursing action is most appropriate? Select One:
A. Explain the consequences without treatment
B. Notify the physician of the mother’s refusal
C. Encourage the mother to reconsider
D. None of the Above

438. Mr. Mintah is scheduled for radical neck surgery and a total laryngectomy. During the preoperative teaching, the nurse should prepare the client for which of the following postoperative possibilities? Select one:
A. Gastrostomy tube
B. Endotracheal intubation
C. Insertion of laryngectomy tube
D. None of the Above

439. Which of the undermentioned paralysis would occur in a patient who suffered a fracture of the cervical spine and had damage the spinal cord? Select One:
A. Hemiplegia
B. Paraplegia
C. Monoplegia
D. None of the Above

440. The correct procedure for auscultating the client’s abdomen for bowel sounds would include: Select one:
A. Placing the client on the left side to aid auscultation
B. Listening for 5minutes in all four quadrants to confirm absence of bowel sound
C. Encouraging the client to cough to stimulate movement of fluid and air through the abdomen
D. None of the Above

441. The nurse assists in preparing patients for surgery. Which of these patients would the nurse recognize as being in the best condition for surgery and at lower risk for complications? Select one:
A. A 23-year-old patient 30 pounds less than ideal weight
B. A 55-year-old patient who is a marathon runner
C. A 66-year-old patient who is obese
D. Options A and B

442. In constrictive pericarditis, the inflammation of the pericardium is characterized by all the following, except? Select One:
A. Scarring
B. Contracture
C. Kussmaul’s sign
D. None of the Above

443. When caring for road traffic accident victims the nurse would prioritise care and provide treatment first for a patient with........... Select one:
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. A fractured femur
C. A penetrating abdominal wound
D. None of the Above

444. To prevent hip flexion contractures in following amputation of the lower limb, the nurse should teach patient to: Select one:
A. Perform quadriceps muscle setting exercise twice daily
B. Turn from side to side three times daily
C. Lie on the abdomen 30 minutes four times daily
D. None of the Above

445. The nurse has instructed the client about the correct positioning of his leg and hip following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following statements indicate that the client has understood these instructions? Select one:
A. I should avoid any unnecessary walking for about 3 months after my surgery
B. I may cross my legs as long as I keep my knees extended
C. I should avoid bending over to tie my shoe
D. None of the Above

446. A client has a tumor of the posterior pituitary gland. A nurse planning his care should include all the following EXCEPT? Select one:
A. Restrict fluids
B. Monitor intake and output
C. Overload patient with drugs
D. Options A and C

447. Which suture could be used to close the subcutaneous tissue after a laparotomy? Select one:
A. Linen catgut
B. Plain catgut
C. Chronic catgut
D. Acute catgut

448. A patient returns to the ward fully awake following a bronchoscopy and biopsy. The nurse should: Select One:
A. Evaluate the presence of a gag reflex
B. Advise the patient to cough frequently
C. Advise patient to lie flat for 2 hours
D. None of the Above

449. Which of the following instruments should the nurse add when setting a trolley for the doctor to conduct vaginal examination? Select One:
A. Hager’s dilator
B. Cusco’s speculum
C. Forceps
D. Normal dilator

450. In most cases of sigmoid colon, the twist is in which direction? Select One:
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. A and B
D. Counterclockwise

451. An antibiotic therapy has been recommended for Madam Kadija, a 34year old with gastric ulcer. The nurse knows that antibiotic therapy is given to patient with gastric ulcer to: Select one:
A. Treat helicobacter pylori infection
B. Augment the immune system
C. Potentiate the effect of antacid
D. None of the Above

452. Which of the following forms of healing occurs with wounds that are aseptically made with minimal tissue destruction? Select one:
A. Healing by 3rd intention
B. Healing by 1st intention
C. Healing by 2nd intention
D. None of the Above

453. Following extensive and prolong surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient for depletion of which electrolyte? Select One:
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. None of the Above

454. Prolong bed rest after surgery promotes haemostasis which may result in deep vein thrombosis resulting in: Select one:
A. Coronary occlusion
B. Cerebral embolism
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. None of the Above

455. An anticipated outcome for the client after cataract removal surgery would include which of the following? Select one:
A. The client describes methods to prevent an increase in intraocular pressure
B. The client states her vision is clear
C. The client states she is able to administer parenteral pain medication
D. None of the Above

456. A 65 year old is exhibiting signs of confusion and has a temperature of 40°C. He is diabetic with purulent drainage from her right big toe. His blood pressure is 70/40mmHg. His pulse is 100bpm and respiration rate is 42cpm. The patient’s symptoms are indicative of which type of shock? Select one:
A. Septic
B. Neurogenic
C. Anaphylatic
D. None of the Above

457. Which App rewards you with airtime and internet bundle for taking quizzes?
A. Twitter
B. NMC
C. tellitnurse App
D. WhatsApp

458. Which of the following will you include in teaching a group of teenage girls about ways to prevent primary dysmenorrhea? Select One:
A. Talk to the physician about antidepressant therapy
B. Avoid aerobic exercise during menstrual period
C. Start taking aspirin when menstruation starts
D. Options A and C

459. The nurse is caring for a patient after a hernia repair who reports pain of 4 on a 0 to 10 scale. The patient’s orders include ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg orally every 6 hours prn for pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select one:
A. Hold the ibuprofen due to risk of gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
B. Give the ibuprofen as ordered for pain
C. Start the ibuprofen on the second postoperative day.
D. All of the Above

460. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed an increased temperature during the first 24hours postoperatively. Which of these actions is a priority for the nurse to take? Select one:
A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing
B. Providing passive range of motion exercises
C. Giving antipyretic medication
D. Options A, B and C

461. When an abdominal wound suddenly bursts on the ward, the nurse’s responsibility is first to: Select One:
A. Cover wound with sterile moist towel
B. Assess patient for shock
C. Inform surgeon immediately
D. None of the Above

462. The client has an order for heparin to prevent post-surgical thrombi. Immediately following a heparin injection, the nurse should: Select One:
A. Check the pulse rate
B. Check the site for bleeding
C. Massage the site The correct answer is: Check the site for bleeding
D. None of the Above

463. Suctioning of a patient with tracheostomy must be brief. It should not exceed ......... seconds: Select One:
A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

464. Halitosis and sour taste in the mouth are clinical manifestations associated most directly with: Select One:
A. Achalasia
B. Esophageal atresia
C. Noma
D. All of the Above

465. Infants and children with aortic valve stenosis may exhibit all the following clinical manifestations EXCEPT: Select One:
A. Extreme tiredness
B. Rapid breathing
C. High blood pressure
D. None of the Above

466. Features of hyperparathyroidism includes: Select One:
A. Renal colic if patient has had calculi
B. Elevated serum calcium
C. Carpopedal spasm
D. None of the Above

467. To monitor adequate fluid in Mr. Otoo Ayivor, who has undergone a thoracic surgery, the Nurse would: Select one:
A. Administer intravenous fluid
B. Monitor and record hourly intake
C. Monitor effects of diuretics
D. None of the Above

468. Alinkrah Martha, a 73-year-old widow, tells to the nurse during the admission process that she was recently diagnosed with age-related hearing loss. Upon receiving such information, the nurse is correct if he suspects? Select one:
A. Presbycusis
B. Meniere's disease
C. Otalgia
D. None of the Above

469. The nurse should protect the patient’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using: Select One:
A. Methylated spirit
B. Tincture benzoin
C. Barrier cream- to prevent excoriation
D. None of the Above

470. Mrs. Jane Mills is to be receiving enema. In which position should she be placed? Select One:
A. Fowler’s
B. Knee-chest
C. Left Sim’s
D. All of the Above

471. A patient who has sustained head injury regains consciousness and is able to move the extremities. This suggests non-involvement of the: Select One:
A. Post central gyrus
B. Basal ganglia
C. Parietal lobes
D. None of the Above

472. Squint is also referred to as….....
A. strabismus
B. nystagmus
C. melbomian cyst
D. applanation prisms

473. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1

474. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?
A. Blurred vision or diplopic
B. Urinary frequency or urgency
C. Confusion or drowsiness
D. Diarrhoea or constipation

475. To avoid drug administration error, you must observe the 5 ______ of a patient.
A. Body parts
B. Vital signs
C. Rights
D. Wrongs

476. Aku Botwe reported at the hospital with itchy and whitish vagina discharge. The laboratory result confirmed candidiasis. Which of the following medication is most appropriate for treating this condition.
A. Clindamycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Famciclovir
D. Nystatin (antifungi)

477. The amount of blood pumped by the ventricles in 1 minute is known as;
A. Cardiac output
B. Heart rate
C. Stroke volume
D. ventricular contraction

478. Immature red blood cells are called .................
A. megakaryocytes
B. haemoglobins
C. reticulocytes
D. monocytes

479. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 2000mg PO may present with which of the following as severe effects.
A. Bacteraemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Neutropenia
D. Natraemia

480. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to
A. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility.
B. Eat at least six small meals per day
C. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain.
D. Consume a bland diet only

481. Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?
A. a colony of black dots in the ear drum
B. dense white patches on the ear drum
C. a red, bulging eardrum
D. a round darkened area on the eardrum

482. To help a patient obtain maximum benefits after postural drainage the nurse should
A. Administer the oxygen prn
B. Encourage the patient to cough deeply
C. Encourage the patient to rest for 30 minutes
D. Place the patient in a sitting position

483. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux’s skin test with an area of induration of about..............
A. 7mm
B. 5mm
C. 10mm
D. 3mm

484. Patient who reported with vomiting and diarrhea had a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which of the following statement describe this diagnosis. I. Loss of extracellular fluid volume exceeds the intake fluid. II. Loss of water alone with increased serum level III. Ratio of serum electrolyte to water remains the same IV. Water and electrolyte are lost in the same proportion as they exist in the normal body fluids.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

485. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:
A. protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances

486. Mama Ashie, a 28 year old known Asthmatic patient was rushed to the OPD with an asthmatic attack. The physician Assistance ordered Theophylline which will……….
A. Decreased air way inflammation
B. Dilate the airway
C. Reduced irritation in the airway
D. Reduced the constriction of the bronchioles

487. Mr. Hush Moro has pleural effusion. Which of the following adventitious sounds indicate that this patient has a fluid fill lung?
A. Bronchial
B. Crackles
C. Vesicular
D. Wheezes

488. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
A. Elevating the legs when in bed
B. Putting the patient in supine position
C. Serving a seasoned beef to him
D. Using bedside commode for stools

489. Mr. Fordjour a 65 year old patient on admission at your ward report of having urgency and frequency of micturition and dysuria. Patient may possibly have……..
A. Glomerulonephritis, renal stones
B. Lesions of bladder neck, urinary sphincter injury
C. Renal neuropathy, urinary tract infection
D. Urethra stricture, benign prostatic hyperplasia

490. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by
A. Arterial spasm
B. Blocking of the coronary veins
C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
D. Ischaemia of the heart muscles

491. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient on bed rest the nurse should
A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercise
B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake
C. Massage the legs twice daily
D. Teach the patient to move the legs when in bed

492. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

493. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
A. Raised level of genes
B. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
C. Two haemoglobin s genes
D. A single haemoglobin s genes

494. The benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it
A. Provides a high titre of antibodies
B. Provides immediate active immunity
C. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity
D. Stimulates plasma cells directly

495. Which of the following diseases is often gotten from animal bite?
A. Diarrhea
B. H.I.V
C. Rabies
D. Hepatitis

496. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents………...
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.
C. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis.
D. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus

497. A pacemaker is used in some patient to serve the function normally performed by
A. Accelerator nerves to the heart
B. A.V node
C. Bundle of his
D. SA node

498. Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in the.............
A. respiratory and nervous systems
B. nervous and endocrine systems
C. digestive and nervous systems
D. digestive and endocrine systems

499. The nurse is performing an irrigation of the left ear of Madam Akos Boamaah with impacted cerumen. What be the nurses best action?
A. Gentle pull the pinna back and upwards
B. Gentle pull the pinna down and backwards
C. Instruct the patient to tilt the head backwards
D. Place a cotton in the ear

500. A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from.............
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Buerger’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Paget’s disease