1001 - 1300 NMC Past Question Bank

1000. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom begins a tonic seizure with a clenched jaw. What should the nurse do?
A. Attempt to open the jaw
B. Lower the child to the floor
C. Place a large pillow under the head
D. Shout for assistance

1001. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children?
I. Haemophilia
II. Sickle cell disease
III. Spherocytosis
IV. Thalassaemia
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

1002. After circumcision of a new born male, the most essential immediate post-operative thing
to observe is:
A. Decreased urinary output
B. Haemorrhage
C. Infection
D. Shrill or piercing cry

1003. How long after birth physiological jaundice usually occurs
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 week

1004. To promote absorption of an iron supplement it should be administered
A. During meal
B. Immediately before meals
C. Two hours after meals with orange juice
D. Two hours after meals with milk

1005. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics

1006. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following
I. Analgesic
II. Exercise
III. Plenty of fluid
IV. Warmth
A. II and II
B. II and IV
C. IV and I
D. I, III and IV

1007. What care would you give to a baby undergoing phototherapy?
I. Ensure adequate fluid intake
II. Ensure maximum skin exposure
III. Maintain the baby’s temperature
IV. Protect the eyes from light
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1008. A 9-year old boy has a fractured femur and a full leg cast has been applied. The nurse should immediately notify the physician if assessment demonstrates
A. A cast that remains damp and warm after 4 hours
B. An increased urinary output
C. An inability to move the toes
D. Pedal pulse of 90 bpm

1009. The nurses’ immediate action when a child is rushed in with severe diarrhoea and vomiting
will be
I. Keep child warm in bed
II. Prepare trolley for intravenous infusion
III. Reassure mother of safety of the child in the hospital
IV. Start oral rehydrated therapy
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II,III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1010. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38^C
D. Replace lose calories

1011. The following is the best way to detect fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome
A. A measurement of abdominal girth daily at the same time
B. Monitoring of the amount of 24 hours urine collected daily at same time
C. Monitoring of child’s weight daily at the same time
D. None of the above

1012. The method of assessment where the nurses uses sound generated by a body through the application of a physical force is termed
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. palpation
D. Percussion

1013. TO confirm cervical cancer, the BEST investigation to be ordered is
A. Blood test for Human Papiloma Virus
B. Papanicolaou test
C. Pelvic x-ray
D. Ultrasonography

1014. The main objectives for a preventive nurse practice include
I. advocating for the vulnerable
II. prevention of diseases
III. prolongation of life
IV. promotion of health
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

1015. Talking to a baby is important because it provides the building block for future ………….. Development.
A. Cognitive
B. Language
C. Motor
D. Social

1016. Nurses can prevent childhood injuries by
I- educating parents through anticipatory guidance
II- modeling safety practices
III. supporting rules that advocates for safety measures
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

1017. The teacher explain that during labour there is funneling in the cavity which usually hinders the progress. The teacher was referring to which type of Pelvic ?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Platypelloid

1018. A moon face appearance, swollen feet hands of a child is typical of
A. Marasmus
B. Marasmus - Kwashiorkor
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Obesity

1019. The main focus of medical asepsis is to
A. destroy all the micro organisms In the hospital setting
B. prevent the spread of organisms from one patient to another
C. prevent the spread of communicable diseases in the community
D. prevent any organisms from coming in contact with the patient

1020. Mental retardation may occur as a result of
A. congenital syphilis
B. galactosaemia
C. Huntington's chorea
D. sickle cell disease

1021. BCG is one of the childhood immunizations which is injected ………… into the …………… upper arm of the deltoid muscles.
A. Intradermally , left
B. Intradermally, right
C. Subcutaneously, left
D. Subcutaneously, right

1022. Patient undergoing general surgery is instructed to take nothing by mouth. This is to
A. make the patient relax for the surgery
B. prevent aspiration during surgery
C. promote early recovery from anaesthesia
D. promote easy administration of general anaesthesia

1023. Nurses who make FALSE statements about their clients or co-workers through writing can be sued for
A. Battery
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. Tort

1024. It is crucial to prevent children from drinking alcoholic beverages since this may lead to……………… disability in later life.
A. emotional
B. mental
C. physical
D. social

1025. Select the best option for the interpretation of Engagement in midwifery
A. The narrowest presenting transverse diameter passed through the pelvic
B. The widest presenting transverse diameter passed through the pelvic brim
C. The relationship between diameter of the presenting part of the pelvic brim
D. The relationship between where the fetus lies and the presenting part.

1026. The goal of educating patient diagnosed with Nephrotic Syndrome to sit up In bed before getting out of bed includes EXCEPT
A. exercise the body
B. improve circulation
C. improve oxygenation
D. prevent a fall

1027. You will educate children to prevent hiding in cupboards and other enclosed areas to prevent
A. cuts
B. drowning
C. falls
D. suffocation

1028. One main objective of School Health Services is to
A. ensure learning opportunities are available and' conducive to the level of the children
B. Foster teacher – parent relationship through cooperation
C. promote optimum sanitary conditions and safe environment
D. protect and promote the health, safety and welfare of school children

1029. The common environmental factors responsible for causing congenital malformations are
I. Drugs intake by the mother during pregnancy
II. X-ray exposure during pregnancy
III. Malaria in pregnancy
IV.Maternal addiction with alcohol
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1030. Madam Adoma gives you information about the properties she has acquired without the husband's knowledge. To whom would you disclose this Information?
A. Biological Children
B. Colleague nurses
C. No one
D. Spouse of patient/client

1031. Clinical features of panic attack Includes
I. feeling of chocking
II. Numbness
III. a state of shock
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

1032. Nurse Ansah forgets to serve prescribed medicine to a patient who had surgery 24 hours ago. This act of the nurse is considered as- turned from
A. Felony
B. Misdemeanor
C. Malpractice
D. Negligence

1033. A nurse was instructed to served a medication b.d.
How many time will the nurse serve the patient within 24 hours?
A. Just Once
B. Two times
C. Three times
D. Four times

1034. The main function of the gastrointestinal system is to supply nutrients to the body cells. This is accomplished through the following EXCEPT
A. Absorption
B. Digestion
C. Elimination
D. Ingestion

1035. The child who is having severe diarrhoea will be losing water and which electrolytes?
I. bicarbonate
II. chlorides
III. potassium
IV. sodium
A. I, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV

1036. A condition In which there is an opening on the dorsal surface of the penis is known as
A. Congenital Hydronephrosis
B. Epispadias
C. Hypospadias
D. Teratoma

1037. Pain relieving strategies of adolescents include the following except
A. massage
B. rhythmic breathing
C. story telling
D. touch

1038. Madan, Adzovi is a single parent with a six month old baby who always attends well-baby clinic late. She can be helped to change by
A. advising her to set off early to the clinic
B. asking family members to assist her with chores
C. finding out the reason's for her habitual lateness
D. Informing her the time the clinic begins and closes

1039. A patient with bulimia nervosa frequent secret eating is usually followed by feeling of
A. anger
B. depression
C. humiliation
D. unreality

1040. Nurse Mensah failed to fix back the bed side rails after giving bed bath to Kojo, an epileptic patient. Patient fell and sustained a fracture, which of the following offences will he be charged with?
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Malpractice
D. Misdemeanor

1041. Failure of professional duty is legally referred to as
A. fidelity
B. fraud
C. liability
D. negligence

1042. What advice would you give to a Parent whose baby has undergone surgical repair of cleft lip and palate after 24 hours?
A. apply protective ointment around the skin of the suture line
B. feed baby with normal food
C. keep area around the suture line clean with soap and water
D. wash hands with soap and water before attending to the baby

1043. The under listed conditions are classified as congenital malformations EXCEPT
A. Anencephaly
B. Fallot's tetralogy
C. Gastroschisis
D. Sub-galeal Haematoma

1044. A nurse was instructed to served a medication q.i.d.
How many time will the nurse serve the patient within 24 hours?
A. Just Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Four times

1045. A nurse was instructed to served a medication tds.
How many time will the nurse serve the patient within 24 hours?
A. Just once
B. Two times
C. Three times
D. Four times

1046. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder?
A. Delirium
B. Depression
C. Obsessive - compulsive disorder
D. Schizophrenia

1047. A nurse caring for a postoperative patient at; night observed that the patient blood pressure begins to drop and the pulse beganto rise. The nurse inform the surgeon who gave orders on the phone to increase Intravenous fluid rate. Patient condition continue to deteriorate but the nurse fails to seek further medical care for the patient.
Select the BEST option that describes the nurse s action.
A. Breach of duty
B. Beneficence
C. Non -maleficence
D. Veracity

1048. What considerations will the nurse/midwife make concerning a patient's choice of food at the ward?
I. educational background
II. patient's preference
III. religious denomination
IV. socio-cultural background
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. II, III and IV

1049. All these viral Infections are transmitted through blood EXCEPT
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D

1050. The danger signs in this type of placenta is that a lobe may be retained after the placenta Is born. Choose the most appropriate answer.
A. Battledore insertion
B. Bipartite insertion
C. Circumvallate lobe
D. Succenturiate lobe

1051. During the second half of the menstrual period, progesterone is largely produced by
A. corpus luteum
B. graafian follicle
C. luteinizing hormone
D. ovulation

1052. Patients with delirium
A. are best nursed in a darkened room
B. are best sedated with barbiturates
C. are rarely disoriented to time
D. experience visual hallucinations

1053. A palliative nurse failed to Inform a patient the risk involved in radiotherapy. Based on the information given, the patient gives her written consent to the treatment and thereafter sustained painful burns and scarring of her skin. The patient sues the nurse for
A. damages
B. lack of Informed consent
C. malpractice
D. all of the above

1054. The accepted professional nursing attitudes and behaviors includes the following
I. Acceptance of others views
II. Commitment to work
III. Loss of Interest In learning new skills
IV. Searching for new knowledge
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1055. Gastric ulcer may be managed surgically using the following approaches EXCEPT
A. Antrectomy
B. Billroth's operation
C. Gastrectomy
D. Vagotomy

1056. Failure of fracture to consolidate in the expected time is due to
A. delayed union
B. non union
C. malunion
D. pseudo union

1057. The objective for fracture healing include
I. Improve alignment
II. reduce pain
III. restore function
IV. restore the normal anatomy
A. I and II only
B. I, and III only
C. II,III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV

1058. A 25 year old gravida G1 PO complains of weaknesses, fatigue, headache, vomiting, haemoglobin of 7g/dL, loss of appetite and her temperature read 39 °C
A. Anaemia in pregnancy
B. Malaria in pregnancy
C. Puerperal sepsis
D. Puerperal malaria

1059. You are on night duty and a patient who has been on the ward for 3 days suddenly becomes aggressive, breaks a louvre blade and stabs himself with it. The patient bleeds to death.
What is the name given to the report that you will write?
A. Daily report
B. Incident report
C. Twenty - four hour report
D. Nurses' report

1060. A patient fails to settle her hospital bill and is not allowed to go home by the nurses on duty which legal offense is the nurse liable
A. False imprisonment
B. Invasion of privacy
C. Misdemanor
D. Tort

1061. Deep vein thrombosis usually originate from the veins In the
A. gastro-intestinal tract
B. lower extremities
C. pulmonary circulation
D. upper extremities

1062. Which of the following strategies can be used to minimize stress
I. Attitude control
II. Cultivating low self-esteem
III. Exercising
IV. using defence mechanisms
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1063. Children are more vulnerable to home accidents because they are
A. fond of running around during play
B. free to play without restrictions
C. less able to recognize dangerous situations
D. mostly changing their type of play materials

1064. In assessing a child for Vitamin C deficiency disorder, which of the following features would you consider?
A. Dermatitis: areas exposed to sun develops rashes
B. Pale and cracked angles of the mouth
C. Spontaneous bleeding from the skin
D. Vascularization of the cornea of the eye

1065. What are the complications of cleft lip and palate?
I. Altered dentition
II. Altered speech development
III. Feeding difficulties
IV.Otitis media
A. I, III and IV only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV

1066. Alberta complained to the nurse manager that she had been given an injection without her consent.
Which offence would the nurse be charged with?
A. Criminal assault
B. Malficience
C. Technical assault
D. Tort

1067. A 20 year GIP1 complains of weakness, fatigue, pyrexia of 38 °C , headache, haemoglobin of 7g/dL, pallor, loss of appetite and offensive liquor.
A. Anaemia in pregnancy
B. Malaria in pregnancy
C. Puerperal sepsis
D. Puerperal malaria

1068. Maturation results from the aging process whereas learning
A. Is produced by experience
B. occurs in adult
C. results from heredity
D. results from good nutrition

1069. In caring for an infant with cleft lip and cleft palate before surgery which of the following will you consider as the most important
A. Ensuring adequate nutrition
B. Promoting family coping
C. Reducing family anxiety
D. Relieving pain

1070. The nurse prepares a care plan for patient care to
A. change the nursing actions to improve the patient's response
B. determine If the patient has tolerated the care
C. eliminate the need for the patient to make decisions
D. promote consistency of care from nurses on all shifts

1071. A nurse was instructed to served a medication stat.
How many time will the nurse serve the patient within 24 hours?
A. Just Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times

1072. The matured sperm is stored in ............ before ejaculation.
A. epididymis and Deferent duct
B. bulbourethral duct and Deferent duct
C. ejaculatory duct and prostate gland
D. prostate gland and seminal vesicles

1073. Which of the following should a nurse possess, when providing holistic care.
I. Data of client
II. Knowledge in the area of practice
III. Positive attitude
IV. Requisite skills
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

1074. An adolescent girl has come to the health facility requesting for an abortion. The nurse considering her personal spiritual values thinks the girl is not taking the right decision yet she goes ahead to render the services to the girl because she has the duty to keep.
Which ethical theory has the nurse applied here?
A. Consequentialism
B. Deontology
C. Teleology
D. Utilitarianism

1075. A nurse at the front desk behaves rudely to a patient.
The patient reports the said nurse to the nurse- manager.
Which aspect of the nurse's behavior should be worked
on?
A. Attitude
B. Competence
C. Knowledge
D. Skill

1076. Freud's oral and anal stages are based on the principle of
A. autonomy
B. care giving
C. sensual gratification
D. toilet training

1077. Hypertension usually occurs when there is
A. Persistent rise in the arterial blood pressure of above 140/90mmHg
B. Persistent rise in the venous pressure of above 140/90mmHg
C. Severe headache with blood pressure of more than 120/90mmKg
D. Sudden rise in blood pressure of l40/90mmHg

1078. The BEST method used in preventing, sexually transmitted disease is
A. Abstinence
B. Use of condom
C. Use of foaming tablets
D. Use of IUD

1079. The main purpose for preparing patient before surgery may include to
I. alleviate post-operative pain
II. maintain nil per os
III. prevent post-operation complications
IV. promote early recovery
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1080. A nurse is to give health education to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with cancer of the breast. She enters the room and finds the room dark with the patient curled up in bed and sobbing.
What factors will the nurse put In place to influence effective communication with the patient?
A. Consider a comfortable environment, emotion and sociocultural background of patient
B. Instruct patient not to talk back until you have finished the health talk
C. Inform patient she has to sit up and listen to the health education
D. Offer information while patient is still curled up and sobbing in bed

1081. Which of the following BEST describes care of patient's property?
A. Dirty clothing should be kept in patient's cupboard
B. In case of communicable disease disinfect clothing
C. Label valuables such as watch, jewelry and keep It at the nurses' station
D. Patient's valuables must be kept with the patient

1082. A client G1P0 came to your facility for antenatal care, during your observation you found out that there were changes in her skin pigmentation. This suggested to you that the client is………… weeks pregnant.
A. Two
B. four
C. six
D. eight

1083. A way of communicating our feelings, thoughts and beliefs in an open honest manner without violating the rights of others is known as
A. assertive behavior
B. aggressive assertive behavior
C. non-verbal communication
D. verbal communication

1084. A heterograft is used in burnt wound to
A. improve healing
B. prevent Infection
C. reduce blood loss
D. reduce pain

1085. To locate the fetal back the midwife performs ……….. Palpation
A. Fundal
B. Lateral
C. Pelvic
D. Pawlick

1086. Madam Brago brought her three months old baby to your clinic with swelling on the right thigh after the child was immunized one week ago. What immunization was given?
A. BCG
B. DPT/ Hibhep
C. Pneumococcal vaccine
D. Polio vaccine

1087. Which of the following are the rights of a patient
I. consent or decline to a treatment
II. comply with prescribed treatment
III. personal safety and security
IV. second medical opinion
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

1088. Which of the following is not associated with turners syndrome
A. Female gender identity
B. Infertility
C. Short stature
D. XXY chromosome pattern

1089. A client with moderate level of anxiety will manifest
I. Diaphoresis
II. Difficulty sleeping
III. Headache
IV.Pounding pulse
A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

1090. When caring for child with pertussis who Is coughing so much the nurse should observe him for complications Including
A. haemoptysis
B. hunched back
C. inguinal hernia
D. permanent sore throat

1091. In adolescence, the term "growth spurt" refers to
A. a type of behavior Indicating a parahillia
B. Confusional state characterized by memory loss
C. the rapid physical development
D. The identity confusion experienced in early sexual stimulation

1092. Hajia Mohammed Is 30 weeks pregnant and believes that someone want to take her baby from her womb.
Which of the following Individuals would you Involve when counseling her
I. Hospital Chaplain
II. Husband of client
III. Imam
IV. Ward in charge
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

1093. The reason for temper tantrums in toddlers Is because they.
A. are unable to distinguish right from wrong
B. do not get enough attention
C. have poor parent-child attachments
D. have limited language ability

1094. The ideal position to place a patient soon after
heamorrhoidectomy is
A. lateral
B. prone
C. semi-fowlers
D. supine

1095. When a patient questions the correctness of medication the nurse should
A. Call The doctor on duty to verify the order
B. Check the patients chart to see the doctors signature
C. Inform the patient it is the right drug
D. Recheck the order, the label and the medication sheet

1096. A Mid-year old man complained of chest pain and chest x-ray was done for him. The physician noticed fluid accumulation in the pleural space. This is described as;
A. empyema
B. pleural abscess
C. pleural effusion
D. pulmonary effusion

1097. In Freud's stages of personality development, the period where the focus of the child centres on group activities, learning and socialization with peers is at the Stage.
A. Genital
B. Latency
C. Oral
D. Phallic

1098. A client G2P1 40 weeks gestation reported at your facility with the following history, select the option that suggest a danger sign in pregnancy.
I. mucus bloody vaginal discharge
II. painful uterine contraction
III.ruptured membranes two days ago
IV.vomiting and nausea which Is continuous
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

1099. A nurse fails to give a patient full information about his condition and its management. Which of the following ethical principle did the nurse fail to practice?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Fidelity
D. Justice

1100. Scald is a common accident that can occur In the home, resulting from:
I. A child running into hot water
II. Crawling into uncovered hot water
III. Pouring hot water on the child
IV.Pouring corrosive substance on the child
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

1101. A teacher was describing' the chorion of the placenta and gave the following descriptions. Which of the following is out of place?
A. Friable
B. Smooth
C. Tough
D. Translucent

1102. Sinusitis is …………………
A. Alteration in the normal functioning of the paranasal sinuses
B. any alteration in the normal functioning of the sinuses
C. Inflammation of one or more paranasal sinuses
D. Inflammation of the sinuses

1103. Rehabilitation is necessary In fracture management to improve
A. alignment
B. bone strength
C. bone healing
D. weight gaining

1104. The dominant electrolytes in the intracellular fluid Is
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

1105. Diagnostic investigations of Meningitis include the following EXCEPT
A. Computerized Tomography
B. Resonance Imaging
C. Lumbar puncture
D. ultrasonography

1106. In dealing with temper tantrums, parents should
A. Give in to child's demands
B. Relax rules of the house
C. Remain calm
D. Shout at child

1107. is a technique of modifying behavior that pairs relaxation with the object of fear/phobic stimulus.
A. Flooding
B. Modling
C. Shaping
D. Systematic desensitization

1108. Which of the following eating disorders will the client show severe under weight in addition to having the fear of gaining weight or becoming fat?
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Binge eating
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Pica

1109. Which of the following is a disease of the integumentary system
I. pemphigus
II. Psoriasis
III. Warts
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only

1110. 1. The Fundamental responsibility of the nurse as stipulated in the international Council of Nurses (ICN) code of ethics are the following EXCEPT
A. obtain consent
B. prevent illness
C. promote health
D. restore health

1111. Codes of good manners that govern the actions of
Nurses and Midwives Is referred to as
A. Code of Ethics
B. Hospital Etiquette
C. Morals
D. Values

1112. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service.
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services

1113. Isolation of child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
A. Intermediate
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary

1114. Isolation of child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
A. Intermediate
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary

1115. The process whereby vaccines are kept in a potent state from the manufacturer to the consumer is referred to as
A. Chain of command
B. Cold chain
C. Food chain
D. Vaccination chain

1116. The population of a community is needed for effective expanded programme on immunization (EPI) because it:
A. Gives the number of the vulnerable group
B. Helps to know the children that have been immunized
C. Makes the demographic characteristics very simple
D. Tells the vaccines that are possible to loose potency

1117. Primary health care is total approach to community development .which of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach:
A. Health programs are sustained according to level of development of the community
B. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families
C. Health workers are able to provide care based on identified health needs of the people
D. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health

1118. A mother wants to know how to differentiate between measles(ruboala) and German measles (rubella).What characteristics feature of rebeola will your tell her?
A. A high fever and koplik spots
B. A rash on the trunk with pruritus
C. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps
D. Signs that are similar to those of a cold followed by rash

1119. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
A. community organizing
B. community study
C. core group formation
D. Integration

1120. A main characteristic of population-based public health nursing practice is that it;
A. Gives preference to primary prevention
B. Gives preference to secondary prevention
C. Gives preference to Tertiary prevention
D. Considers multiple levels of prevention

1121. You are teaching mothers of children who have aneamia related to inadequate diet. Inaddition to iron ,which of the following nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of red blood cell(RBC)
A. Calcium and vitamin A
B. Carbohydrates and thiamine
C. Protein and ascorbic acid
D. Vitamin D and Ribloflavin

1122. The level of immunity achieved by a whole community or population is termed?
A. Acquired immunity
B. Cross immunity
C. Herd immunity
D. Racial immunity

1123. Which of the following is true about BCG immunization?
A. It is normally given into the lateral aspect of the arm at the level of the insertion of the deltoid muscle
B. It must be administered subcutaneously
C. The correct dose for children is 0.5ml
D. The injection should be given with the needle bevel downwards

1124. The aim of childhood immunization is to protect the child from:
A. All childhood diseases
B. Communicable diseases
C. Life threatening diseases
D. Specific childhood diseases

1125. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to
A. Determine the aetiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the country
C. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community
D. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease

1126. Four-year old Akosua has chickenpox. The mother asks the nurse when Akosua can return to school. What is the best response that the nurse should give?
A. All the lesions must be completely gone before contact with others is assumed
B. Within two to three weeks the itching should be under control and good
C. Akosua can return six days after the first lesions appear,because the crust will be informed
D. Akosua must learn to cough with her mouth covered ,put tissues in the trash and wash her hands after touching her nose or mouth

1127. River blindness is a chronic ………………infection
A. Bacterial
B. Parasitic
C. Protozoan
D. Viral

1128. Which of the following is not one of the pillar of regenerative health
A. Drinking enough potable water
B. Getting enough rest and relaxation
C. Good nutrition
D. Periodic exercise

1129. Primary prevention refers to;
A. Easy diagnosis and prompt treatment
B. Limitation of disability
C. Rehabilitation
D. Prevention of exposure to risk factors

1130. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to
A. Determine the aetiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the country
C. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community
D. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease

1131. A foreign substance that elicits an immune response is referred to as
A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Leucocytes
D. Phagocytes

1132. When counseling the parents of children with anaemia related to diet, you will explain that there are several different nutrients involved. These nutrients include proteins ,iron, vitamin B12 and:
A. Calcium
B. Folic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamine

1133. Communicability of disease depends upon the availability of:
A. Parasite
B. Pathogen
C. Reservoir
D. Susceptible person

1134. After exposure to an infection, the vaccine administered to the individual confers:
A. Active artificial immunity
B. Active natural immunity
C. Passive artificial immunity
D. Passive natural immunity

1135. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old.
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness.

1136. A person who has been in such association with an infected person or animal or a contaminated environment as to have had an opportunity to acquire the infection is a
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Vector
D. Vehicle

1137. Which of the following is not one of the pillar of regenerative health
A. Drinking enough potable water
B. Getting enough rest and relaxation
C. Good nutrition
D. Periodic exercise

1138. Madam Adwoa Diewon holds child welfare clinic daily at Medowo Health Centre. What type of clinic is this?
A. Outreach
B. Satellite
C. Special
D. Static

1139. What sexually transmitted infection can be transmitted to a newborn during the birthing process?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Herpers
D. Syphilis

1140. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the public health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives

1141. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
A. community organizing
B. community study
C. core group formation
D. Integration

1142. Which of the following is an example of the school nurse’s role?
A. Requesting for BCG from the cold room for school entrance immunization
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free times

1143. You were invited by parent teacher association (PTA) of Glory Preparatory school to give a talk on communicable disease .During the talk you reminded them that these disease are serious and that encephalitis can be a complication of one of the following;
A. Pertussis
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Scarlet fever
D. Varicella (chicken pox)

1144. The determinants of health include all of the following EXEPT:
A. Access to health care service
B. Food, water, and air
C. Personal coping skills
D. Private health insurance

1145. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environment manager

1146. One of the factors which may demotivate mothers from patronizing a child welfare clinic is:
A. Community durbar
B. Community mobilization
C. Home visits
D. Long waiting time

1147. The weakest link in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and disease is the
A. Infectious agent
B. Mode of transmission
C. Portal of entry
D. Susceptible host

1148. Which of the following is a benefit of community mobilization?
A. Encourage community dispute
B. Encourage lust for power
C. Encourage resistance to change
D. Encourage sustainability of effort

1149. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to;
A. Identify the health problem as a common concern
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Participate in community activities for the solution of community problem
D. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem

1150. The following are components of the Primary Health Care concept EXCEPT:
A. Community participation
B. Equal allocation of service
C. Health education
D. Preventive services

1151. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to;
A. Identify the health problem as a common concern
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Participate in community activities for the solution of community problem
D. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem

1152. The first step in the community assessment process is to:
A. Describe the population that comprises the community
B. Elicit the community „s perception of their strengths, problems and health influences
C. Gather and analyze existing /available information to identify health indicators
D. Identify all potential partners for assessment and planning

1153. A community can be identified by its
A. Acquisition of land
B. Behavior change
C. Demographic features
D. Poverty levels

1154. Community mobilization is a process that:
A. Changes the goals of the community
B. Focuses on communal activities
C. Motivates the community to take action
D. Moves groups to come together

1155. An infection from this disease causing organism has no specific cures:
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Virus

1156. Public health is the science and art of …........ disease……………and…………..health through the organized efforts of society
A. Controlling, protecting, maintaining
B. Preventing, prolonging, promotion
C. Prevent ,promotion ,prolonging
D. Treating, maintaining, protecting

1157. When counseling the parents of children with anaemia related to diet, you will explain that there are several different nutrients involved. These nutrients include proteins ,iron, vitamin B12 and:
A. Calcium
B. Folic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamine

1158. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What body part is best examined for pallor?
A. Around the lips
B. Lower conjunctival sac
C. Nallbeds
D. Palms

1159. Control of environmental hazards and protection against occupational hazards are all examples of
A. Health promotion
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

1160. The immunity obtained when one causative organism provides immunity to a related organisms is:
A. Acquired immunity
B. Cross immunity
C. Herd immunity
D. Racial immunity

1161. The recommended site if administration of DPT/HepB/HIB in infants is
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Forearm
C. Gluteal muscle
D. Lateral aspect of thigh

1162. During a school health progamme, you observed that 10-year old Akwesi Mensah had a circle of ring worm on his scalp so you asked some questions. Which of the environmental factors most likely contributed to his acquisition of ringworms
A. He forgets to wash his hair sometimes and his mother has to remind him to do so
B. They have a kitten at home which stays out side during the day but comes in during the night to sleep near him
C. He loaned his football to his friend kwame last week but has not gotten it back
D. he takes Trotro to and from school every day and likes to sit near the driver‟s mate so they can talk about football

1163. Mr and Mrs Quansah visited the CWC with their new born who has an obvious physical defect.
Which nursing intervention provides the most support to these parents?
A. Discourage them from talking about their baby
B. Encourage them to express their concern
C. Show them postoperative photographs of infants had similar defects
D. Tell them not to worry because the defect can be corrected

1164. Mr. Boateng a 60 year old has just retired and expresses concern of loneliness due to the loss of job and co-workers. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
A. But now you can finally relax and enjoy life
B. Do you know about the senior citizens club?
C. Why don't you go into work and visit your old friends
D. You need to take a vacation

1165. The family is known as the basic unit of society. Which of the following is a very important function performed by a family?
A. Acculturation
B. Identification
C. Socialization
D. Stratification

1166. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows sharing of experience among with similar health problems
B. It allows the nurse to provide nursing car to a greater number of people
C. It develop the family‟s in providing for health needs of its members
D. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation

1167. The mother of a two-year old boy told you that, her son has temper tantrums and demand for toys when they go to the market. The mother asks you for advice on now best she can handle these temper tantrums. What would you suggest to this mother?
A. She should buy one toy for him anytime they visit the market
B. She should discipline the child immediately when he demands for toys
C. She should leave him at home whiles she goes to the market
D. She should remain calm and ignore his tantrums

1168. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to;
A. Around the lips
B. Lower conjunctival sac
C. Nallbeds
D. Palms

1169. Home visiting is advantageous because it;
A. Ensures effective counseling in the home
B. Help reduce reluctance of client to health education
C. Provide incentives to families
D. Reduce risk and problems in the home

1170. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows sharing of experience among with similar health problems
B. It allows the nurse to provide nursing car to a greater number of people
C. It develop the family‟s in providing for health needs of its members
D. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation

1171. Report writing is essential in community work and it must includes
A. Achievements and problems
B. Meetings scheduled with community
C. Number of people in given program
D. Statistical arrangement for inventory

1172. The determinants of health include all of the following EXEPT:
A. Access to health care service
B. Food, water, and air
C. Personal coping skills
D. Private health insurance

1173. Madam Grace Pokuaa is a regular CWC attendant. She visited your clinic with her14-weeks old baby Akua. What immunization will baby Akua be due for?
A. 0PV 0,DPT/Hep B/Hib3/Rotarix2/yellow fever
B. 0PV 3,DPT/Hep B/BCG and Pneumoccocal 3
C. 0PV 3,DPT/Hep B/Hib 3/Rotarix 3 and Pneumococcal 3
D. 0PV 3,DPT/Hep B/Hib 3, and Pneumococcal 3

1174. A nurse, planning a home visit to a mother who has a high risk infant knows that the visit will be more productive if scheduled when the:
A. Husband is out of the home
B. Mother is feeding the infant
C. Nurse has time to spend with family
D. Time is convenient for the family

1175. Primary health care is total approach to community development .which of the following is an
indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach:
A. Health programs are sustained according to level of development of the community
B. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families
C. Health workers are able to provide care based on identified health needs of the people
D. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health

1176. After giving a vaccine you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Observe the recipient for immediate adverse reaction
B. Keep the recipient under observation for one hour
C. Dispose of equipment used for vaccination in safety box
D. Keep accurate and accessible records on both the recipient and vaccine given

1177. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation
C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for health needs of its members

1178. You are teaching mothers of children who have aneamia related to inadequate diet. Inaddition to iron ,which of the following nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of red blood cell(RBC)
A. Calcium and vitamin A
B. Carbohydrates and thiamine
C. Protein and ascorbic acid
D. Vitamin D and Ribloflavin

1179. The public health nurse, conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high mortality rate due to heart diseases in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation

1180. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health statistics using graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you prepare?
A. Bar
B. Line
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram

1181. What is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of diseases.
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs.
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health.
D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children

1182. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members
B. In the care of family member’s, as much as possible, use only articles taken from the bag
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out before putting it back into the bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside.

1183. The mother of a four –month old baby who had his second DPT/Hep 3/Hib immunization
yesterday called you the nurse and reported that the baby has a temperature of 38.7 oC and hard reddened area on his thigh. The best interpretation of this data is the child
A. Has developed a secondary infection
B. Is developing symptoms of the disease
C. Is reacting normal to immunization
D. May be allergic to the vaccine

1184. A mother is using oral Rehydration salt (ORS) in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits.
You will tell her to:
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment
B. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving ORS more slowly.

1185. What measure should a pregnant woman undertake to protect the unborn child from tetanus?
A. Eat nourishing diet during pregnancy
B. Immunize with anti-tetanus serum during pregnancy
C. Immunize with tetanol toxoid during pregnancy
D. Prevent herself from nail prick during pregnancy

1186. Tells the vaccines that are possible to loose potency
A. Abscess formation
B. High body temperature
C. Pain at the site of injection
D. Swelling of the lymph nodes

1187. A baby is born at 39 weeks with petechial rash, low birth weight, hepatosplenomegaly and
cataracts. This is due to infection acquired in utero. Which microorganism is likely to cause their clinical presentation?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Rubella virus
C. Toxoplasma qondi
D. Treponema palladium

1188. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant‟s temperature registered at 38.1C which is the best course of action that you will take?
A. Advise the infant‟s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well
B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C. Go ahead and give the infant the immunization
D. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment

1189. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important principle in bag technique states that it;
A. Should save time and effort
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family
D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation, etC.

1190. In establishing rapport during home visit, the nurse must do the following

I. Knock, enter and greet according to custom
II. Introduce yourself and explain your mission of your visit
III. Identity family needs
IV. Ask about the health of the family
A. I, II and III only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only

1191. Which of the following is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around the family health needs
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by RHU
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible-family member

1192. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called:
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Anaphylactic shock

1193. At the end of the clonic stage of epileptic seizure, the nurse should:
A. Allow the patient to sleep
B. Insert a gag in-between the teeth
C. Remove the casualty from the source of danger
D. Turn the patient to one side

1194. Which of the following is considered as life threatening source of haemorrhage?
A. Arterial bleeding
B. Capillary bleeding
C. Venous bleeding
D. None

1195. The first principle or general rule of First Aid in order of importance is to:
A. Treat most urgent conditions first
B. Remove casualty from danger or vice versa
C. Reassure casualty
D. Call for help

1196. Which of the following is not a technique used in giving rescue
breath?
A. Mouth to barrier
B. Mouth to nose
C. Mouth to mouth
D. Mouth to stomach

1197. The partial displacement of the joint bodies with the articular
surface no longer in contact with each other is known as:
A. Sprain
B. Dislocation
C. Subluxation
D. Strain

1198. A 35 year old woman, Atinganpoka sustained various degrees of burns on her trunk excluding the back and the right upper arm (front and back), when a fuel tanker exploded. Using Wallace Rule of Nine, calculate the total surface area of her burns.
A. 45%
B. 27%
C. 36%
D. 18%

1199. All the following are causes of asphyxia under obstruction or occlusion EXCEPT:
A. Strangulation with a rope
B. Smothering
C. Collapse of lungs
D. Drowning

1200. Which of the following is NOT considered as a cause of burns?
A. Lightening
B. Flames of fire
C. Hot metals
D. Hot oils

1201. A 79 year old man suffered a myocardial infarction 20 minutes before being seen at the clinic and the physician mentioned to the nurse saying “I’m sorry but this man has suffered cardiogenic shock. This statement implies which one of the following:
A. High blood pressure
B. Pump failure
C. Electrocution
D. Significant blood loss

1202. Which of the following type of poisoning that induction of vomiting is not appropriate?
A. Corrosive
B. Irritants and narcotics
C. Narcotics
D. Irritants

1203. After you have survey an accident scene and provided for your own safety you should:
A. Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your treatment
B. Provide primary treatment for shock
C. Call 911 or your local emergency number
D. Provide immediate treatment for the ‘hurry cases’

1204. When calling an ambulance, what are the 3Ws the First Aider must expect?
A. Who, What and When
B. Who, When and What
C. Where, what and when
D. Who, what and where

1205. A mass of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels that forms on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process is known as:
A. Granulation tissue
B. Scar tissue
C. Erythema
D. Eschar tissue

1206. White or grayish-yellow patches on someone’s ear, noses or cheeks are signs of:
A. Frostbite
B. Cold related stress disorder
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Hypothermia

1207. Pick the ODD one out of the following with regard to scope of First Aid:
A. Referral
B. Diagnosis
C. Admission
D. Assessment

1208. During the assessment of a client who needs first aid, what does the acronym ABC mean?
A. Airway, Boldness, Capacity
B. Airway, Breathing, Circumcision
C. Airway, Boldness, Circulation
D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation

1209. A 36 year old man, Yakote was hit down by a salon car. He had a deep lacerated wound on the lower limb bleeding. He was also bleeding from the back of his head and ceased to breath. Which of the following actions needs to be done first and immediately for this casualty?
A. Call the physician or doctor immediately
B. First stop bleeding, then take care of airway and breathing
C. Get a fast ultra-sound exam as soon as possible
D. First take care of airway and breathing, and then stop bleeding

1210. All the following are characteristics of lacerated wound EXCEPT:
A. Edges are sharp and well defined
B. Edges are jagged irregular
C. Skin and tissues are torn
D. Caused by fall on rough surface

1211. Signs and symptoms of shock includes the following EXCEPT:
A. Breathing rapidly, sighing
B. Shallow and slow breathing
C. Cold and clammy skin
D. Sub-normal temperature

1212. A First Aider who shares a casualty’s perception of reality is said to be:
A. Approachable
B. Empathetic
C. Honest
D. Resourceful

1213. Which of the following is not a material used for making bandages?
A. Fibre
B. Gauze
C. Cotton and wool
D. Calico

1214. Mr. Asaman sustained severe damage to his skin and the underlying tissues when he was exposed to extremely very cold temperature for a long period of time. This is termed as:
A. Frostbite
B. Wound
C. Burns
D. Scalds

1215. When considering multiple injuries to a casualty or multiple casualties then which of the following would be your priority?
A. Severe bleeding
B. Broken bones
C. Breathing difficulty
D. Burns

1216. A sensible assessment of the situation has to be made in First Aid especially when:
A. A decision has to be made on need for medical aid or transporting the casualty to hospital
B. The casualty wants sips of hot tea
C. The casualty has contusion
D. The casualty is discharged from hospital

1217. During your home visit, you met a 25 year old man who just drunk kerosene.

What immediate actions will you take?
A. Reassure him
B. Refer him to the hospital immediately
C. Tell the wife to give him palm oil
D. Induce vomiting

1218. Which of the following are the correct stages in arresting bleeding during an emergency?
A. Direct pressure – indirect pressure – tourniquet
B. Direct pressure – tourniquet – direct pressure
C. Indirect pressure – tourniquet – direct pressure
D. Indirect pressure – direct pressure – tourniquet

1219. What is procedure for treating a known poisonous snake bite?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Capture the snake. Place it in an ice chest and take the snake and victim to a hospital
B. Place a constricting bandage 4inches above the head of the snake bite to slow the spread of venom
C. Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately
D. Treat the victim for shock and continue the planned activity

1220. All the following are long term complications of a wound EXCEPT:
A. Shock
B. Scar
C. Keloids
D. Infections

1221. The general principles of First Aid states that ‘nothing should be given to a casualty to drink…..’
A. In all circumstances
B. When unconscious only
C. When there is haemorrhage only
D. When there is shock only

1222. What is the correct procedure for dealing with a conscious choking adult?
A. Check airway, give 5 back blows and repeat
B. Give 5 back blows, give 5 chest thrusts, repeat
C. Check airway, attempt ventilation, give 5 back blows and repeat
D. Check airway, encourage coughing, giving up to 5 back blows

1223. The primary techniques used in treating a choking victim are:
A. Back blows and back slaps
B. Chest compression and rescue breaths
C. Heimlich maneuver and back slaps
D. Heimlich maneuver and abdominal thrust

1224. A casualty who is recovering from shock exhibits the following signs EXCEPT:
A. Low blood pressure
B. Respiration is slower and deeper
C. Casualty vomits or has a tendency to vomit
D. Pulse becomes slower and stronger

1225. All the following are causes of wound EXCEPT
A. Gangrene
B. Trauma
C. Burns
D. Infection

1226. What is First Aid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Completing a primary survey
B. The first help given to the victim of an accident
C. Assessing a victim’s vital signs
D. Treating a victim for shock

1227. A 24 year old student sustained injury of the hand whiles he was playing volley-ball on campus. He was diagnosed as having a sprain of the hand.

Which of the following statement best defined a sprain?
A. Forcible wrenching and tearing of tendons
B. Forcible stretching of the tendons
C. Forcible wrenching and stretching of ligaments
D. Forcible stretching and tearing of ligaments

1228. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor to fractures?
A. Age
B. Disease of bone
C. Disease of blood vessel
D. Nutrition deficiencies

1229. The application of tourniquet to arrest hemorrhage is associated with the following complications EXCEPT:
A. Damage to skin
B. Granulation
C. Gangrene
D. Damage to nerve and muscles

1230. In First Aid, ‘hurry cases’ describes
A. Absence of breath, pulse and respiration
B. A bloody accident scene
C. Conditions that threatens victims life
D. Conditions requiring ambulance services

1231. During resuscitation, cardiac compression becomes necessary when there is:
A. Absence of respiration
B. No response to stimuli
C. Presence of pulse rate
D. Absence of heart beat

1232. Biting of the tongue and lips and blood stained saliva are seen in which stage of a major epileptic seizure?
A. Aura
B. Tonic
C. Clonic
D. Coma

1233. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
A. Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
B. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
C. Keep shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness

1234. What does the letter ‘C’ stands for in the ABCD of resuscitation?
A. Circulation
B. Cast
C. Condom
D. Cardioscope

1235. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolaemic shock?
A. Surgical operation
B. Burns and scalds
C. Hemorrhage
D. Severe pain

1236. Which of the following statement about Anaphylactic shock is
true?
A. Caused by reduction of body fluids
B. Reaction between two antibodies
C. Over reaction between antibodies and antigens
D. Caused by emotional upset

1237. The destruction of sensory receptors explains why there is:
A. Pain in third degree burns
B. No pain in second degree burns
C. Pain in second degree burns
D. No pain in third degree burns

1238. Which of the following fracture does not usually need open reduction and internal fixation?
A. Mid shaft fracture of femur
B. Pathological fractures
C. Trochanteric fractures in elderly
D. Displaced intra-articular fractures

1239. What is the earliest indication of Volkmann’s ischaemia?
A. Pain
B. Pallor and poor capillary filling
C. Paraesthesia in median nerve area
D. Contracture of fingers

1240. The First Aider finds a victim under the wreckage of a collapsed building. The victim is conscious, breathing satisfactorily, and lying on the back complaining of pain in the back and an inability to move the legs. The First Aider should:
A. Leave the individual lying on the back with the instructions not to move and seek additional help
B. Gently raise the individual to a sitting position to see whether the pain either diminishes or increases in intensity
C. Roll the individual onto the abdomen, place a pad under the head, and cover with any material available
D. Gently lift the individual onto a flat piece of lumber and using any available transportation, rush to the closest medical institution.

1241. Which of the following is commonest material used to make orthopedic implant
A. Titanium
B. Stainless steel
C. Polyethylene
D. Methyl-methacrylate

1242. What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspects has an electrical burns:
A. Check for breathing and pulse
B. Check to see if electricity is turned off
C. Check for severe bleeding
D. Check for shock

1243. During which stage/phase of an epileptic attack does the victim experience twitching, jerking and at times incontinence of urine and feces.
A. Clonic phase
B. Coma phase
C. Tonic phase
D. Aura phase

1244. Which of the following is NOT done for a casualty who is bleeding from the tooth socket?
A. Loose tight clothing around the neck, chest and waist
B. Given ice to the casualty to suck
C. Fix a plug of gauze or cotton wool in to the socket
D. Discourage the casualty from spitting and washing the mouth

1245. The following are all types of bandages EXCEPT
A. Roller bandage
B. Crepe bandages
C. Triangular bandage
D. Tail bandages

1246. Death 3 days after pelvic fracture is most likely to be due to
A. Haemorrhage
B. Pulmonary condition
C. Fat embolism
D. Respiratory distress

1247. How would you treat a casualty with a soft tissue injury such as a sprain or strain?
A. Isolate and do not move
B. Rest, ice, compression, elevation
C. Raise, ice, comfort, evaluate
D. Take to hospital immediately

1248. Which of the following is incorrect about dislocation of sternoclavicular joint?
A. Anterior dislocation occurs due to indirect injury and is common type of dislocation
B. Posterior dislocation is rare and occurs due to direct injury over medial end of clavicle
C. Sternoclavicular dislocation is common compared to acromio-clavicular dislocation
D. Trachea can be compressed in posterior dislocation

1249. A patient who has sustained open wound on leg is bleeding profusely. Before patient arrives in hospital the safest method to stop bleeding is:
A. Elevation of leg
B. Local pressure on wound and elevation of leg
C. Ligation of bleeding vessel
D. Use of tourniquet

1250. Which of the following pressure point of the body (artery) that supplies blood to the side of the head?
A. Brachial artery
B. Facial artery
C. Radial artery
D. Temporal artery

1251. Severe bleeding is a ‘Hurry Case’ which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Bleeding can seldom be stopped with direct pressure
B. A tourniquet is almost always required to control serious bleeding
C. Should the first sterile pad used become blood soaked, immediately remove it and apply another
D. Try to avoid direct contact with the victim’s blood by using latex gloves or another barrier

1252. Local signs and symptoms of a fracture include the following EXCEPT:
A. Swelling
B. Shortening of affected area
C. Fever
D. Pain of the area

1253. When a fracture fragments are pushed into another tightly, it is known as:
A. Comminuted
B. Compound
C. Impacted
D. Spiral

1254. All the following are possible causes of haematemesis EXCEPT:
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Fracture of the base of the skull or jaw
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Previous swallowing as a result of nose bleeds

1255. Assuming you are properly trained, the best procedure to follow for a water rescue is:
A. Throw, row then go
B. Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support
C. Swim with support, throw a rope or floatation device, reach with a pole from shore
D. Reach, paddle, swim

1256. A fracture in which the broken bone has torn through the skin is
termed?
A. Closed fracture
B. Open fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Spiral fracture

1257. Which is the strongest ligament?
A. Illio-femoral ligament
B. Ischio-femoral ligament
C. Pubo-femoral ligament
D. Transverse acetabular ligament

1258. A small animal that is almost invisible burrows into the skin and cause itching:
A. Common wood tick
B. Limon-Lyme tick
C. C-Rocky Mountain Spotted tick
D. Chigger

1259. When making as emergency call, what are the three Ws?
A. Who, What and Where
B. Where, What and Why
C. Why, When and Where
D. Who, What and What

1260. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the patient triage?
A. The sorting of patients based on the amount of time the patient has been waiting in the waiting area
B. The sorting of patients to be seen based on the age of the patient
C. The sorting of patients based on acuity level when they present to be seen at the hospital
D. The sorting of the patient medical record when they present to be seen at the hospital

1261. An unresponsive casualty who has pulse but no breathing requires
A. CPR only
B. Heimlich maneuver, rescue breath and CPR
C. Rescue breath, Heimlich maneuver and chest compression
D. Rescue breaths only

1262. What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is ‘not breathing’ need?
A. The Heimlich maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
B. Start CPR immediately
C. Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
D. You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

1263. In arterial bleeding, blood escapes from the:
A. Part of the wound farthest away from the heart
B. Part of the wound nearest the lungs
C. Part of the wound nearest to the heart
D. All of the above

1264. When caring for a victim with a bloody nose, you would NOT:
A. Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose
B. Apply pressure to the upper lip just beneath the nose
C. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backwards
D. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward

1265. Which of the following is NOT considered as a principle of First Aid?
A. Remove victim from danger or vice versa
B. Administration of pain killers to relief pain
C. Place unconscious victim in the prone position
D. Transport the casualty to a health facility

1266. Which of the following is the ‘golden rule’ in First Aid management?
A. Acting calmly and logically
B. Being gentle but firm
C. Do no harm
D. Speak kindly to the casualty

1267. Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing or material?
A. To cool burned area
B. To keep the burned area warm
C. None of the above
D. To prevent infection

1268. Which of the following types of wounds has a danger of damaging
deep internal organs?
A. Contused
B. Incised
C. Lacerated
D. Punctured

1269. Which of the following best defined secondary haemorrhage?
A. It occurs 48 hours after the injury
B. It occurs within 24 hours after the injury
C. Occurs from the 7th – 10th day after the injury
D. Occurs immediately after the injury

1270. In which year was the Health and Safety at work formed?
A. 1974
B. 1981
C. 1984
D. 1989

1271. During your home visit, you met a 25 year old man who just drunk kerosene.

What will you tell him before you proceed with your home visit?
A. Always read labels on bottles before drinking
B. Avoid the use of kerosene
C. Report immediately to any nearby health facility
D. Remain at home with his wife

1272. In bandaging a patient’s left leg during a wound care procedure,
the nurse would:
A. Stand in front of the patient and bandage from below upwards
B. Stand in front of the patient and bandage from top to bottom
C. Stand behind the patient and bandage downwards
D. Stand besides patient and bandage in any direction

1273. What is the best definition of the ‘Hurry Cases’?
A. Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
B. Any condition that threatens a victim’s life
C. Any illness where the victim vomits
D. Any accident requiring rescue breathing

1274. The ultimate objective of First Aid management is to:
A. Provide reassurance
B. Prevent complications
C. Relieve pain
D. Save life

1275. When considering multiple injuries to a casualty or multiple casualties, then which of the following would be your priority?
A. Severe bleeding
B. Broken bones
C. Breathing difficulty
D. Burns

1276. A 33 year old woman, Natasha sustained various degrees of burns on her right lower limb (front and back), her perineum and the neck when hot oil poured on her. With the Wallace’s rule of nine.
Calculate the total surface area burns.
A. 32.5%
B. 14.5%
C. 27%
D. 23.5%

1277. Which App gives you airtime and internet bundle for your Tellitnurse App quiz points?
A. Facebook
B. Twitter
C. tellitnurse App
D. Viber

1278. What is the immediate treatment for a casualty who has swallowed a corrosive poison?
A. Make them eat
B. Place in the recovery position
C. Give sips of water
D. Do nothing until at hospital

1279. Which of the following interventions will you take first when a victim is having asphyxia?
A. Giving rescue breaths
B. Opening victims airway
C. Removing victim to a safe area
D. Removing debris from the victim’s mouth

1280. The main purpose of First Aid management include the following
EXCEPT:
A. To aggravate pain
B. To prevent disability and death
C. To save life
D. To promote speedy recovery of injury part

1281. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the combination of which of the following:
A. Rescue breathing and artificial respiration
B. Chest massage and pulmonary maneuver
C. Artificial respiration and mouth to mouth
D. Rescue breathing and chest compressions

1282. The accepted treatment for a nose bleed is:
A. Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure point to control the bleeding
B. Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils
C. Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels
D. Lay the victims on his back and treat for shock. Apply heat if available

1283. What is the most suitable position for an unconscious casualty:
A. Prone position
B. Dorsal with head turn to one side
C. Prone with head turn to one side
D. Lateral position

1284. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult?
A. Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute
B. One cycle of one breath and 10 compression each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
C. Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compression per minute
D. Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute

1285. Which of the following should NOT be in your First Aid box?
A. Triangular bandage
B. Plaster
C. Headache tablets
D. Dressings

1286. What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder?
A. Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat
B. Use the cross your heart padded chest support method
C. Used the flail chest protection system
D. Apply a modified ‘Johnson Traction Splint’

1287. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is:
A. Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
B. This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
C. Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
D. Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above, and one below the break

1288. Select the odd out of the following about triangular bandage
A. Apex
B. Base
C. Ends
D. Tale

1289. In the treatment of First Aid conditions, the First Aider begins with:
A. The most urgent conditions first
B. Arrest of haemorrhage first
C. Laying casualty down with head turned to one side
D. Sending for medical

1290. If your casualty has clear fluid, spotted with blood, coming from their nose, then what condition do you think your casualty is suffering from?
A. Stroke
B. Concussion
C. Skull fracture
D. Headache

1291. A young man was involved in an explosion and sustained burned
injuries. Upon arrival to the hospital, physical assessment revealed that the anterior surface of the right upper limb and half of the anterior surface of the trunk was damaged. Estimate the surface area damaged.
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 13.5%
D. 20%

1292. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate definition of First Aid?
A. An assistance to a sick person
B. The initial treatment given to anyone who becomes ill or injured
C. It is the quick and short term treatment for any emergency before the arrival of a physician or taking the victim to health facility
D. None of the above

1293. National emergency service that can be contacted during
emergency care include the following EXCEPT:
A. Zoom lion Ghana LTD
B. National ambulance service
C. Ghana fire service
D. Ghana police service

1294. Which of the following is not a stage in bandaging?
A. Applying
B. Patterning
C. Anchoring
D. Terminating

1295. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation

1296. A patient who is exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies
B. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
C. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
D. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic site

1297. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Emphysema
D. Atelectasis

1298. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. Apex heart rate
B. radical pulse
C. Difference between apex and radical pulse
D. Respiration rate

1299. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distention
B. Flatulence
C. Regurgitation
D. Indigestion

1300. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. Apex heart rate
B. Difference between apex and radical pulse
C. radical pulse
D. Respiration rate