501. Mr. Lee, a patient on your ward has been scheduled for ECG examination. Patient is anxious and eager to know the reason for the ECG. Which of the following will be the best response from the nurse?
A. Determines the patient potential target heart rate
B. Shows how the heart performs when at rest
C. Shows the presence of myocardial infarction
D. Will predict whether the patient will have heart attack
A. Determines the patient potential target heart rate
B. Shows how the heart performs when at rest
C. Shows the presence of myocardial infarction
D. Will predict whether the patient will have heart attack
502. Syndromic management of sexually transmitted infections has both advantages and disadvantages. The following are some disadvantages except.
A. Problem with partner notification
B. Only symptomatic STIs are treated
C. Over treatment especially in women
D. Treatment is given at first visit
A. Problem with partner notification
B. Only symptomatic STIs are treated
C. Over treatment especially in women
D. Treatment is given at first visit
503. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distention
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D. Regurgitation
A. Abdominal distention
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D. Regurgitation
504. Before a tuberculosis patient is declared non-infective the nurse must ensure that
A. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum
B. The patient no longer has the disease
C. The patient’s temperature is normal
D. The tuberculin skin test is negative
A. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum
B. The patient no longer has the disease
C. The patient’s temperature is normal
D. The tuberculin skin test is negative
505. Vitamins are needed -----------. to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities
506. Mr. Boateng is diagnosed of the Meniere’s (lesion) of the ear disease and is been discharged. Which of the following is an appropriate teaching on regarding diet?
A. Avoid excess use of caffeine
B. Avoid sugar substitute
C. Drink at least 2litres of fluid per day
D. Follow a high fiber diet
A. Avoid excess use of caffeine
B. Avoid sugar substitute
C. Drink at least 2litres of fluid per day
D. Follow a high fiber diet
507. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to ....
A. focus on a distant object
B. close one eye and read letters on a chart
C. raise one finger when the sound is heard
D. focus on a close object
A. focus on a distant object
B. close one eye and read letters on a chart
C. raise one finger when the sound is heard
D. focus on a close object
508. The byproducts of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water
509. A patient with restlessness, agitations, twitching, convulsion and serum sodium greater than 145Eq/L can be said to be suffering from....
A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypernatraemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyponatraemia
A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypernatraemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyponatraemia
510. A patient on Lasix and digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by
A. Continuous dypsnoea
B. Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction
A. Continuous dypsnoea
B. Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction
511. A patient was rushed to the hospital with a complaints of sudden abdominal pains. On arrival at the hospital, the pain lasted a relatively short time and was self-limiting. This pain could be described as....
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Referred
D. Throbbing
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Referred
D. Throbbing
512. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. apex heart rate
B. difference between apex and radical pulse
C. radical pulse
D. respiration rate
A. apex heart rate
B. difference between apex and radical pulse
C. radical pulse
D. respiration rate
513. A patient complains of severe abnormal pain. The nurse in assessing the pain should note the following.
I. Degree of pain
II. Duration
III. Intervals without pain
IV. Time of onset.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
I. Degree of pain
II. Duration
III. Intervals without pain
IV. Time of onset.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
514. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover
515. A patient on the ward is been manage for severe dehydration. The nurse in planning care for this patient should be alert for the following risk factors .
I. Diabetes insipidus
II. Excessive vomiting
III. Gastrointestinal suctioning
IV. Osmotic diuresis
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
I. Diabetes insipidus
II. Excessive vomiting
III. Gastrointestinal suctioning
IV. Osmotic diuresis
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
516. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have
A. more haemoglobin S
B. less haemoglobin S
C. greater life span
D. lesser life span
A. more haemoglobin S
B. less haemoglobin S
C. greater life span
D. lesser life span
517. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffering from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables
518. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating
519. Oculomotor nerve is also called....
A. cranial nerve I
B. cranial nerve IV
C. cranial nerve III
D. cranial nerve VII
A. cranial nerve I
B. cranial nerve IV
C. cranial nerve III
D. cranial nerve VII
520. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract Surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
A. An osmotic diuretic
B. A miotic agent
C. A mydriatic medication
D. A thisazide diuretic
A. An osmotic diuretic
B. A miotic agent
C. A mydriatic medication
D. A thisazide diuretic
521. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommendeD. What is sclerotherapy?
A. surgical removal of the varicosity
B. tying off veins
C. oral intake of anticoagulant
D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off
A. surgical removal of the varicosity
B. tying off veins
C. oral intake of anticoagulant
D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off
522. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Striping
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg
A. Striping
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg
523. Mr. Oye a 30 year old man is scheduled for thoracentesis. The nurse’s role will includeː
I. Offer support throughout procedures
II. Preparing and positioning patient
III. Suctioning patient during procedure
IV. Teaching deep breathing and coughing exercise
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
I. Offer support throughout procedures
II. Preparing and positioning patient
III. Suctioning patient during procedure
IV. Teaching deep breathing and coughing exercise
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
524. Overdose of insulin injection
A. Chronic pain and tenderness of the thyroid gland
B. Dysphagia, fever, restlessness
C. Exophthalmos, palpitation, nervousness
D. Firm palpable thyroid gland, neck pain
A. Chronic pain and tenderness of the thyroid gland
B. Dysphagia, fever, restlessness
C. Exophthalmos, palpitation, nervousness
D. Firm palpable thyroid gland, neck pain
525. An ambu-bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored
526. What explanation will the nurse give to Mr. Atsu, a patient who is enquiring about the reason for his urine specimen for culture and sensitivity test?
I. Determines the presence of bacterial and their strains
II. Help in estimating specific gravity of urine
III. Identifies the antimicrobial therapy best suited for identified microbes
IV. Help with appropriate evaluation of any abnormalities in urine
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II III and IV
I. Determines the presence of bacterial and their strains
II. Help in estimating specific gravity of urine
III. Identifies the antimicrobial therapy best suited for identified microbes
IV. Help with appropriate evaluation of any abnormalities in urine
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II III and IV
527. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is....
A. leukocyte antigen
B. immunofluorescent assay
C. direct fluorescent antibody test
D. immunofluorescence skin test
A. leukocyte antigen
B. immunofluorescent assay
C. direct fluorescent antibody test
D. immunofluorescence skin test
528. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of....
A. factor IV only
B. factor IV and factor VIII
C. factor VIII and IX
D. factor VIII and factor IV
A. factor IV only
B. factor IV and factor VIII
C. factor VIII and IX
D. factor VIII and factor IV
529. The major goal of the nurse in managing a patient with pneumonia include....
I. Improve airway patency
II. Institute suctioning therapy
III. Maintain proper fluid volume
IV. Provide enough rest to conserve energy
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
I. Improve airway patency
II. Institute suctioning therapy
III. Maintain proper fluid volume
IV. Provide enough rest to conserve energy
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
530. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid....
A. cereal products
B. salty foods
C. citrus foods
D. green vegetables
A. cereal products
B. salty foods
C. citrus foods
D. green vegetables
531. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms
532. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:
A. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.
B. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
C. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.
D. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.
A. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.
B. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
C. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.
D. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.
533. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm
534. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid
535. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive status?
A. A CD4 cell count
B. A Western blot
C. A bone marrow biopsy
D. A third ELISA test
A. A CD4 cell count
B. A Western blot
C. A bone marrow biopsy
D. A third ELISA test
536. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
537. A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be an insect?
A. irrigate the ear
B. instill diluted alcohol
C. instill antibiotic ear drop
D. instill corticorsteroid ointment
A. irrigate the ear
B. instill diluted alcohol
C. instill antibiotic ear drop
D. instill corticorsteroid ointment
538. Madam Asana, a known diabetic patient was rushed to the unit with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following is the possible cause of client’s condition.
A. Intake of oral glycemic medications
B. Non adherence to insulin regime
C. Over dose of antibiotic therapy
D. Overdose of insulin injection
A. Intake of oral glycemic medications
B. Non adherence to insulin regime
C. Over dose of antibiotic therapy
D. Overdose of insulin injection
539. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and....
A. water
B. saliva
C. air
D. droplet nuclei
A. water
B. saliva
C. air
D. droplet nuclei
540. When a patient is receiving anticoagulant the nursing care should include observation for
A. Chest pain
B. Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea
A. Chest pain
B. Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea
541. An example of primary prevention activities by the nurse would be
A. Assisting in immunization programme
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Prevention of disabilities
A. Assisting in immunization programme
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Prevention of disabilities
542. Which of the following cardiac makers is first detected in blood after a patient with myocardial infarction is assessed
A. Cardioglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Xyloglobin
A. Cardioglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Xyloglobin
543. A nurse at the Outpatient Department was asked to do genetic counselling for couple who wants to get married. what will be the role of the nurse in genetic counseling
I. Coordinating genetic relation healthcare with relevant community resources.
II. Gathers relevant data about the family
III. Offer support to patient and family only at the beginning of the counseling process
IV. Provide appropriate genetic information
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
I. Coordinating genetic relation healthcare with relevant community resources.
II. Gathers relevant data about the family
III. Offer support to patient and family only at the beginning of the counseling process
IV. Provide appropriate genetic information
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
544. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover
545. Madam Esi has been diagnosed of acute coronary syndrome and is on admission on the medical ward. To identify nervous system involvement of patient condition, the nurse assesses for....
A. Anxiety, restlessness, decrease muscle contractility
B. Anxiety, restlessness, palpitations, heart murmurs
C. Anxiety, restlessness, shortness of breath, crackles
D. Anxiety, restlessness, feeling of impending doom
A. Anxiety, restlessness, decrease muscle contractility
B. Anxiety, restlessness, palpitations, heart murmurs
C. Anxiety, restlessness, shortness of breath, crackles
D. Anxiety, restlessness, feeling of impending doom
546. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of....
A. hearing loss
B. pruitus
C. tinnitus
D. burning in the ear
A. hearing loss
B. pruitus
C. tinnitus
D. burning in the ear
547. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium
548. The coronary arteries
A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs
B. Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium
C. Carry reduced-oxygen-content blood to the lungs
D. Supply blood to the endocardium
A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs
B. Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium
C. Carry reduced-oxygen-content blood to the lungs
D. Supply blood to the endocardium
549. Myocardial infarction is characterized by a prolonged
A. increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues
B. substernal oppression or pain
C. radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms.
D. emotional change due to fear of death.
A. increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues
B. substernal oppression or pain
C. radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms.
D. emotional change due to fear of death.
550. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:
A. Protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances
A. Protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances
551. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
A. ringing in the ears
B. blurred vision
C. headache
D. vertigo
A. ringing in the ears
B. blurred vision
C. headache
D. vertigo
552. A mydriatic agent would always
A. Assist the sight of the client
B. Assist to overcome
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
A. Assist the sight of the client
B. Assist to overcome
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
553. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to
A. use eye drops
B. use rigid contact lenses
C. use corrective lenses
D. undergo keratoplasty
A. use eye drops
B. use rigid contact lenses
C. use corrective lenses
D. undergo keratoplasty
554. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client....
A. about current drugs
B. to avoid tobacco
C. about safety measures
D. about self-care measures
A. about current drugs
B. to avoid tobacco
C. about safety measures
D. about self-care measures
555. Henry peters a hypertensive patient has developed ascites associated with right sided heart failure. The condition of this patient may be due to....
A. Congestion in the peripheral tissue and viscera
B. Decreased in ejected ventricular volume
C. Increased pulmonary pressure
D. Venous engorgement of the lungs
A. Congestion in the peripheral tissue and viscera
B. Decreased in ejected ventricular volume
C. Increased pulmonary pressure
D. Venous engorgement of the lungs
556. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for ....
A. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative
B. 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
C. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
D. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.
A. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative
B. 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
C. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
D. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.
557. When emphysema is present, there is a decrease oxygen supply because of
A. Infectious obstructions
B. Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis
A. Infectious obstructions
B. Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis
558. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from myocardial infarction?
A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
B. the client complains of pain while walking
C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm
A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
B. the client complains of pain while walking
C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm
559. A patient’s laboratory report shows acid-fast rods in his sputum. These rods are presumed to be
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Influenza virus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Influenza virus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
560. A nurse planning care for Brenya who is suffering from hypercalcaemia would make the following relevant nursing diagnosis except
A. Activity intolerance related to neuromuscular weakness
B. Decreased cardiac output related to dysrhythmias
C. Fluid volume deficit related diarrhea
D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness
A. Activity intolerance related to neuromuscular weakness
B. Decreased cardiac output related to dysrhythmias
C. Fluid volume deficit related diarrhea
D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness
561. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with....
A. signs of increased albumin in the blood
B. signs of dehydration
C. signs of heavy loss of protein
D. signs of decreased body hormones
A. signs of increased albumin in the blood
B. signs of dehydration
C. signs of heavy loss of protein
D. signs of decreased body hormones
562. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse expects to note which of the following?
A. Cardizem
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Metronidazole
A. Cardizem
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Metronidazole
563. Baby Moses, a 12 month old baby is on admission at the pediatric ward with recurrent seizures. Describe the nurse’s responsibility after an episode of seizure?
I. Document the event leading to and duration of the seizure
II. Put patient in the fowlers position after the seizures
III. Maintain a patent airway to prevent aspiration
IV. Tell mother to breastfeed baby immediately
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. II and IV
I. Document the event leading to and duration of the seizure
II. Put patient in the fowlers position after the seizures
III. Maintain a patent airway to prevent aspiration
IV. Tell mother to breastfeed baby immediately
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. II and IV
564. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the least is documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets this as
A. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
B. The client is legally blind
C. The client ;s vision is normal
D. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.
A. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
B. The client is legally blind
C. The client ;s vision is normal
D. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.
565. In herpes zooster, the common feature is ....
A. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.
D. Presence of tiny red resides.
A. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.
D. Presence of tiny red resides.
566. A client is diagnosed with glaucomA. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
A. A history of migraine headaches
B. Frequent urinary tract infection
C. A cardio vascular disease
D. Frequent upper respiratory infection
A. A history of migraine headaches
B. Frequent urinary tract infection
C. A cardio vascular disease
D. Frequent upper respiratory infection
567. A myotic agent would always
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diereses
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diereses
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
568. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid
569. Guinea worm disease is described as....
A. air borne only
B. vector borne
C. food borne
D. air and vector borne
A. air borne only
B. vector borne
C. food borne
D. air and vector borne
570. In caring for a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand that
A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment.
B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery.
C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema.
D. He keeps away from other patients at the ward.
A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment.
B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery.
C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema.
D. He keeps away from other patients at the ward.
571. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm
572. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart failure is....
A. to prescribe anti-hypertensive drugs
B. to restrict patient from performing an activity
C. talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover
D. to identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs.
A. to prescribe anti-hypertensive drugs
B. to restrict patient from performing an activity
C. talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover
D. to identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs.
573. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should avoid which of the following in the procedure?
A. pulling the auricle backward and upward
B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
C. warming the solution to room temperature
D. placing the client in the sitting-up position
A. pulling the auricle backward and upward
B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
C. warming the solution to room temperature
D. placing the client in the sitting-up position
574. Which of the following assessment techniques will be the best for determining fluid in the pleural cavity?
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. Palpation
D. Percussion
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. Palpation
D. Percussion
575. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals
576. Adiza, a 13year old student was brought to your ward with the diagnosis of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Which of the under listed will you stress on during discharge education? The patient should....
A. Avoid oxidant medications
B. Reduced exercise
C. Reduced water intake
D. Refused blood transfusion
A. Avoid oxidant medications
B. Reduced exercise
C. Reduced water intake
D. Refused blood transfusion
577. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Two haeinoglobin s genes
B. Ascites
C. Emboli
D. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose
A. Two haeinoglobin s genes
B. Ascites
C. Emboli
D. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose
578. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from mastoiditis?
A. swelling behind the ear
B. a clear tympanic membrane
C. a mobile tympanic membrane
D. a transparent tympanic membrane
A. swelling behind the ear
B. a clear tympanic membrane
C. a mobile tympanic membrane
D. a transparent tympanic membrane
579. Tidal volume can be explained as the amount of air
A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration
B. Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration
C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration
D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended
A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration
B. Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration
C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration
D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended
580. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as
A. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving
B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side
D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain
A. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving
B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side
D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain
581. A common reaction from taking zovirax (acyclovir) is
A. Elevation in WBCs
B. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
C. Elevation in platelet count
D. Elevation in hemoglobin
A. Elevation in WBCs
B. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
C. Elevation in platelet count
D. Elevation in hemoglobin
582. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection....is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine
A. pethidine
B. coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine
583. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
584. The nurse asked the patient to closed the eye and identify mild aromas such as coffee, vanilla, pea nut butter, chocolate or orange. What cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
A. Abducens
B. Auditory
C. Hypoglossal
D. Olfactory
A. Abducens
B. Auditory
C. Hypoglossal
D. Olfactory
585. A nurse should include which of the following non pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer.
A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
B. Smoke only at bedtime
C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief
A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
B. Smoke only at bedtime
C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief
586. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed.
The nurse must first:
A. get an order for pain medication
B. report the complaint to the physician
C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed
The nurse must first:
A. get an order for pain medication
B. report the complaint to the physician
C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed
587. To elicit appropriate responses from a 17 year old about his sexual health and practices, the nurse will ask ....questions.
A. Closed ended
B. Guiding
C. Leading
D. Open ended
A. Closed ended
B. Guiding
C. Leading
D. Open ended
588. During a class room teaching on cardiac conditions, the tutor made mention of pericarditis as one of the conditions of the heart. The lesson was understood that pericarditis can be caused by ....
I. Aneurysm
II. Brain injury
III. Infections
IV. Renal failure
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
I. Aneurysm
II. Brain injury
III. Infections
IV. Renal failure
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
589. The purpose of health education is to
A. re-inforce the doctors instructions for the patient
B. meet the patient’s informational needs
C. facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses
D. create a rapport between the nurse and the patient.
A. re-inforce the doctors instructions for the patient
B. meet the patient’s informational needs
C. facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses
D. create a rapport between the nurse and the patient.
590. In Assessing A Patient For Psychosocial Genetic Health, The Patient Understands That The Following Areas Will Be Assessed The Nurse.
I. ability to make informed decision
II. educational level
III. past coping mechanism
IV. social support
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
I. ability to make informed decision
II. educational level
III. past coping mechanism
IV. social support
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
591. Mrs. Aduke Fume a 26 year old who weighs 85kg has been on the ward for 4 days. In planning care for Mrs. Fume, the following nursing diagnosis were made except;
A. Anxiety related to change in lifestyle
B. Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirement
C. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement
D. Risk for imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirement
A. Anxiety related to change in lifestyle
B. Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirement
C. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement
D. Risk for imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirement
592. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
A. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk
B. erythromatous nodosa
C. dyspnoea on slight exertion
D. numerous boils on the body
A. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk
B. erythromatous nodosa
C. dyspnoea on slight exertion
D. numerous boils on the body
593. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. out of bed to ambulate with assistance
B. place an eye patch over the affected eye
C. maintain high-Fowler’s position
D. restrict visitors
A. out of bed to ambulate with assistance
B. place an eye patch over the affected eye
C. maintain high-Fowler’s position
D. restrict visitors
594. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?
A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine
A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine
595. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is....
A. Low cholesterol diet
B. Low sodium diet
C. Low carbohydrate diet
D. Low fat diet
A. Low cholesterol diet
B. Low sodium diet
C. Low carbohydrate diet
D. Low fat diet
596. Awo kumi reported at the outpatient department with complaint of rash on the whole body. She was assessed and diagnosed of chicken pox, awo kumi understands that her condition is caused by....
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella- zoster virus
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella- zoster virus
597. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity
598. During physical assessment of a patient with breathing difficulty, the patient assumed a sitting up position with arms thrust forward and laterally unto the edge of the bed tripod position he is likely to suffering from.
A. Asthma
B. Atelectasis
C. Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
D. Pneumothorax
A. Asthma
B. Atelectasis
C. Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
D. Pneumothorax
599. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection
A. cough
B. dyspnoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever
A. cough
B. dyspnoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever
600. One cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with emphysema is a
A. Pleval friction rub
B. Puncture wound of the chest wall
C. Rupture of subpleura bleb
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula
A. Pleval friction rub
B. Puncture wound of the chest wall
C. Rupture of subpleura bleb
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula
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