501 - 1000 NMC Past Questions Bank

501. Mr. Lee, a patient on your ward has been scheduled for ECG examination. Patient is anxious and eager to know the reason for the ECG. Which of the following will be the best response from the nurse?
A. Determines the patient potential target heart rate
B. Shows how the heart performs when at rest
C. Shows the presence of myocardial infarction
D. Will predict whether the patient will have heart attack

502. Syndromic management of sexually transmitted infections has both advantages and disadvantages. The following are some disadvantages except.
A. Problem with partner notification
B. Only symptomatic STIs are treated
C. Over treatment especially in women
D. Treatment is given at first visit

503. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of
A. Abdominal distention
B. Flatulence
C. Indigestion
D. Regurgitation

504. Before a tuberculosis patient is declared non-infective the nurse must ensure that
A. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum
B. The patient no longer has the disease
C. The patient’s temperature is normal
D. The tuberculin skin test is negative

505. Vitamins are needed -----------. to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities

506. Mr. Boateng is diagnosed of the Meniere’s (lesion) of the ear disease and is been discharged. Which of the following is an appropriate teaching on regarding diet?
A. Avoid excess use of caffeine
B. Avoid sugar substitute
C. Drink at least 2litres of fluid per day
D. Follow a high fiber diet

507. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to ..............
A. focus on a distant object
B. close one eye and read letters on a chart
C. raise one finger when the sound is heard
D. focus on a close object

508. The byproducts of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water

509. A patient with restlessness, agitations, twitching, convulsion and serum sodium greater than 145Eq/L can be said to be suffering from……………
A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypernatraemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyponatraemia

510. A patient on Lasix and digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by
A. Continuous dypsnoea
B. Diuretic therapy
C. Inadequate oral intake
D. Sodium restriction

511. A patient was rushed to the hospital with a complaints of sudden abdominal pains. On arrival at the hospital, the pain lasted a relatively short time and was self-limiting. This pain could be described as……..
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Referred
D. Throbbing

512. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check
A. apex heart rate
B. difference between apex and radical pulse
C. radical pulse
D. respiration rate

513. A patient complains of severe abnormal pain. The nurse in assessing the pain should note the following. I. Degree of pain II. Duration III. Intervals without pain IV. Time of onset.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

514. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover

515. A patient on the ward is been manage for severe dehydration. The nurse in planning care for this patient should be alert for the following risk factors . I. Diabetes insipidus II. Excessive vomiting III. Gastrointestinal suctioning IV. Osmotic diuresis
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

516. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have
A. more haemoglobin S
B. less haemoglobin S
C. greater life span
D. lesser life span

517. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffering from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

518. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating

519. Oculomotor nerve is also called..................
A. cranial nerve I
B. cranial nerve IV
C. cranial nerve III
D. cranial nerve VII

520. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract Surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
A. An osmotic diuretic
B. A miotic agent
C. A mydriatic medication
D. A thisazide diuretic

521. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommendeD. What is sclerotherapy?
A. surgical removal of the varicosity
B. tying off veins
C. oral intake of anticoagulant
D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off

522. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Striping
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg

523. Mr. Oye a 30 year old man is scheduled for thoracentesis. The nurse’s role will includeː I. Offer support throughout procedures II. Preparing and positioning patient III. Suctioning patient during procedure IV. Teaching deep breathing and coughing exercise
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

524. Overdose of insulin injection
A. Chronic pain and tenderness of the thyroid gland
B. Dysphagia, fever, restlessness
C. Exophthalmos, palpitation, nervousness
D. Firm palpable thyroid gland, neck pain

525. An ambu-bag is used in the intensive care unit when
A. A respiratory arrest occurs
B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation
D. The respiratory output must be monitored

526. What explanation will the nurse give to Mr. Atsu, a patient who is enquiring about the reason for his urine specimen for culture and sensitivity test? I. Determines the presence of bacterial and their strains II. Help in estimating specific gravity of urine III. Identifies the antimicrobial therapy best suited for identified microbes IV. Help with appropriate evaluation of any abnormalities in urine
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II III and IV

527. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is...............
A. leukocyte antigen
B. immunofluorescent assay
C. direct fluorescent antibody test
D. immunofluorescence skin test

528. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of..............
A. factor IV only
B. factor IV and factor VIII
C. factor VIII and IX
D. factor VIII and factor IV

529. The major goal of the nurse in managing a patient with pneumonia include…….. I. Improve airway patency II. Institute suctioning therapy III. Maintain proper fluid volume IV. Provide enough rest to conserve energy
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

530. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid.....................
A. cereal products
B. salty foods
C. citrus foods
D. green vegetables

531. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms

532. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:
A. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.
B. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
C. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.
D. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.

533. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm

534. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid

535. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive status?
A. A CD4 cell count
B. A Western blot
C. A bone marrow biopsy
D. A third ELISA test

536. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome

537. A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be an insect?
A. irrigate the ear
B. instill diluted alcohol
C. instill antibiotic ear drop
D. instill corticorsteroid ointment

538. Madam Asana, a known diabetic patient was rushed to the unit with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following is the possible cause of client’s condition.
A. Intake of oral glycemic medications
B. Non adherence to insulin regime
C. Over dose of antibiotic therapy
D. Overdose of insulin injection

539. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and.............
A. water
B. saliva
C. air
D. droplet nuclei

540. When a patient is receiving anticoagulant the nursing care should include observation for
A. Chest pain
B. Epistaxis
C. Headache
D. Nausea

541. An example of primary prevention activities by the nurse would be
A. Assisting in immunization programme
B. Correction of dietary deficiencies
C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation
D. Prevention of disabilities

542. Which of the following cardiac makers is first detected in blood after a patient with myocardial infarction is assessed
A. Cardioglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Xyloglobin

543. A nurse at the Outpatient Department was asked to do genetic counselling for couple who wants to get married. what will be the role of the nurse in genetic counseling I. Coordinating genetic relation healthcare with relevant community resources. II. Gathers relevant data about the family III. Offer support to patient and family only at the beginning of the counseling process IV. Provide appropriate genetic information
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

544. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover

545. Madam Esi has been diagnosed of acute coronary syndrome and is on admission on the medical ward. To identify nervous system involvement of patient condition, the nurse assesses for……….
A. Anxiety, restlessness, decrease muscle contractility
B. Anxiety, restlessness, palpitations, heart murmurs
C. Anxiety, restlessness, shortness of breath, crackles
D. Anxiety, restlessness, feeling of impending doom

546. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of..................
A. hearing loss
B. pruitus
C. tinnitus
D. burning in the ear

547. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium

548. The coronary arteries
A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs
B. Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium
C. Carry reduced-oxygen-content blood to the lungs
D. Supply blood to the endocardium

549. Myocardial infarction is characterized by a prolonged
A. increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues
B. substernal oppression or pain
C. radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms.
D. emotional change due to fear of death.

550. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:
A. Protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances

551. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
A. ringing in the ears
B. blurred vision
C. headache
D. vertigo

552. A mydriatic agent would always
A. Assist the sight of the client
B. Assist to overcome
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

553. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to
A. use eye drops
B. use rigid contact lenses
C. use corrective lenses
D. undergo keratoplasty

554. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client...........
A. about current drugs
B. to avoid tobacco
C. about safety measures
D. about self-care measures

555. Henry peters a hypertensive patient has developed ascites associated with right sided heart failure. The condition of this patient may be due to………
A. Congestion in the peripheral tissue and viscera
B. Decreased in ejected ventricular volume
C. Increased pulmonary pressure
D. Venous engorgement of the lungs

556. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for ……….
A. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative
B. 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
C. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
D. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.

557. When emphysema is present, there is a decrease oxygen supply because of
A. Infectious obstructions
B. Loss of aerating surface
C. Pleural effusion
D. Respiratory muscle paralysis

558. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from myocardial infarction?
A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
B. the client complains of pain while walking
C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm

559. A patient’s laboratory report shows acid-fast rods in his sputum. These rods are presumed to be
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Influenza virus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

560. A nurse planning care for Brenya who is suffering from hypercalcaemia would make the following relevant nursing diagnosis except
A. Activity intolerance related to neuromuscular weakness
B. Decreased cardiac output related to dysrhythmias
C. Fluid volume deficit related diarrhea
D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness

561. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with........….
A. signs of increased albumin in the blood
B. signs of dehydration
C. signs of heavy loss of protein
D. signs of decreased body hormones

562. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse expects to note which of the following?
A. Cardizem
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Metronidazole

563. Baby Moses, a 12 month old baby is on admission at the pediatric ward with recurrent seizures. Describe the nurse’s responsibility after an episode of seizure? I. Document the event leading to and duration of the seizure II. Put patient in the fowlers position after the seizures III. Maintain a patent airway to prevent aspiration IV. Tell mother to breastfeed baby immediately
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. II and IV

564. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the least is documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets this as
A. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
B. The client is legally blind
C. The client ;s vision is normal
D. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.

565. In herpes zooster, the common feature is …......
A. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.
D. Presence of tiny red resides.

566. A client is diagnosed with glaucomA. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
A. A history of migraine headaches
B. Frequent urinary tract infection
C. A cardio vascular disease
D. Frequent upper respiratory infection

567. A myotic agent would always
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diereses
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

568. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid

569. Guinea worm disease is described as.............
A. air borne only
B. vector borne
C. food borne
D. air and vector borne

570. In caring for a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand that
A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment.
B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery.
C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema.
D. He keeps away from other patients at the ward.

571. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm

572. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart failure is.....…..
A. to prescribe anti-hypertensive drugs
B. to restrict patient from performing an activity
C. talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover
D. to identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs.

573. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should avoid which of the following in the procedure?
A. pulling the auricle backward and upward
B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
C. warming the solution to room temperature
D. placing the client in the sitting-up position

574. Which of the following assessment techniques will be the best for determining fluid in the pleural cavity?
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. Palpation
D. Percussion

575. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals

576. Adiza, a 13year old student was brought to your ward with the diagnosis of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Which of the under listed will you stress on during discharge education? The patient should…………..
A. Avoid oxidant medications
B. Reduced exercise
C. Reduced water intake
D. Refused blood transfusion

577. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Two haeinoglobin s genes
B. Ascites
C. Emboli
D. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose

578. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from mastoiditis?
A. swelling behind the ear
B. a clear tympanic membrane
C. a mobile tympanic membrane
D. a transparent tympanic membrane

579. Tidal volume can be explained as the amount of air
A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration
B. Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration
C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration
D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended

580. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as
A. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving
B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side
D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain

581. A common reaction from taking zovirax (acyclovir) is
A. Elevation in WBCs
B. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
C. Elevation in platelet count
D. Elevation in hemoglobin

582. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine

583. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome

584. The nurse asked the patient to closed the eye and identify mild aromas such as coffee, vanilla, pea nut butter, chocolate or orange. What cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
A. Abducens
B. Auditory
C. Hypoglossal
D. Olfactory

585. A nurse should include which of the following non pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer.
A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
B. Smoke only at bedtime
C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief

586. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed. The nurse must first:
A. get an order for pain medication
B. report the complaint to the physician
C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed

587. To elicit appropriate responses from a 17 year old about his sexual health and practices, the nurse will ask ……….questions.
A. Closed ended
B. Guiding
C. Leading
D. Open ended

588. During a class room teaching on cardiac conditions, the tutor made mention of pericarditis as one of the conditions of the heart. The lesson was understood that pericarditis can be caused by …………. I. Aneurysm II. Brain injury III. Infections IV. Renal failure
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

589. The purpose of health education is to
A. re-inforce the doctors instructions for the patient
B. meet the patient’s informational needs
C. facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses
D. create a rapport between the nurse and the patient.

590. In Assessing A Patient For Psychosocial Genetic Health, The Patient Understands That The Following Areas Will Be Assessed The Nurse. I. ability to make informed decision II. educational level III. past coping mechanism IV. social support
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

591. Mrs. Aduke Fume a 26 year old who weighs 85kg has been on the ward for 4 days. In planning care for Mrs. Fume, the following nursing diagnosis were made except;
A. Anxiety related to change in lifestyle
B. Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirement
C. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement
D. Risk for imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirement

592. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
A. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk
B. erythromatous nodosa
C. dyspnoea on slight exertion
D. numerous boils on the body

593. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. out of bed to ambulate with assistance
B. place an eye patch over the affected eye
C. maintain high-Fowler’s position
D. restrict visitors

594. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?
A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine

595. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is.................
A. Low cholesterol diet
B. Low sodium diet
C. Low carbohydrate diet
D. Low fat diet

596. Awo kumi reported at the outpatient department with complaint of rash on the whole body. She was assessed and diagnosed of chicken pox, awo kumi understands that her condition is caused by…..
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella- zoster virus

597. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity

598. During physical assessment of a patient with breathing difficulty, the patient assumed a sitting up position with arms thrust forward and laterally unto the edge of the bed tripod position he is likely to suffering from.
A. Asthma
B. Atelectasis
C. Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
D. Pneumothorax

599. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection
A. cough
B. dyspnoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever

600. One cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with emphysema is a
A. Pleval friction rub
B. Puncture wound of the chest wall
C. Rupture of subpleura bleb
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula

601. Without any pathological lesions a patient’s respiratory centre is stimulated by
A. Calcium
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid
D. Oxygen

602. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing ………………..
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respirations
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

603. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity

604. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms of ……………..
A. myocardial infarction
B. pneumonia
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary oedema

605. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability

606. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagic anaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

607. A hypertensive patient was placed on furosemide a loop diuretic. The mechanism of action of this medication is to………….
A. Block reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys
B. Block the effect of angiotensin II
C. Impair synthesis of norepinephrine
D. Inhibit calcium iron influx

608. Madam Ageni Boya, a 41 year old who has vomited severally is likely to be diagnosed of.
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

609. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional bruises?
A. brushing the teeth only once per day
B. trimming his nails short
C. handling him well with the palms of the hand
D. gripping him in an arm chair

610. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagicanaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia

611. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes
A. Avoiding expired tin food
B. Observing food hygiene
C. Preventing constipation
D. Screening of blood donors

612. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition

613. The Apical and Radial pulse of a cardiac patient was checked. What will be the difference between the Apical and Radial pulse?
A. Bradycardia
B. Pulse deficit
C. Rhythm deficit
D. Tachycadia

614. Squint occurs when ………….
A. there is an increased intraoccular pressure
B. there is a failure of the visual axes to meet at the point being observed
C. there is a displaced lens
D. the lenses are opaque

615. To identify a cortical motor abnormality during nervous system assessment, the nurse instruct patient to do which of the following?
A. Flex the wrist
B. Make a fist
C. Swinging the arm
D. Throw a ball

616. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemiC. What caused the anaemia?
A. Decreased intake of dietary iron
B. Blood loss
C. Intestinal malabsorption
D. Lack of appetite.

617. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses

618. A Hepatitis B patient on your ward reported of passing light colored stools this could be as a result of the liver………
A. Becoming enlarged and tender
B. Converting glucose to glycogen
C. Not being able to produce bile
D. Secreting a lot of bile salt

619. In hemorrhagic anemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. Coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine

620. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
A. Vitamin B12 injections
B. Vitamin B3 injections
C. Vitamin B6 injections
D. Antacid use

621. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
A. monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
B. bathing with tepid water
C. assisting with meals
D. weighing and recording a weight daily

622. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Supine
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg

623. Mamle Dzata diagnosised of malaria with a temperature of 40˚c. The temperature reduced to 39.6˚c after tepid sponging. Which of the following organs controls the body temperature?
A. Adrenal gland
B. Hypothalamus
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid gland

624. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition

625. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
A. Elevating the legs when in bed.
B. Putting the patient in supine position
C. Serving a seasoned beef to him
D. Using bedside commode for stools

626. Alhaji Bashiru has been diagnosed of peptic ulcer and is on admission at your ward. Which of the following clinical manifestations confirms that he has a duodenal ulcer .ˀ pain occursː
A. 2 to 3 hours after meals
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after meals
C. 2 to 3 hours before meals
D. 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals

627. When teaching about antacid therapy the nurse should include the fact that antacid tablets
A. Are as effective as the liquid from
B. Interfere with the absorption of other drugs
C. Must be taken one hour before meals
D. Should be taken only at 4-hourly intervals

628. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as..................
A. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging
B. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging
C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging
D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging

629. Mr. Abam , age 45 reported to your unit with complains of muscular weakness, constipation, anorexia, bradycardia and heart block. Which of the following conditions is the patient suffering from?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Hypokalemia

630. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:
A. at before instilling the drops
B. wallow several times after instilling the drops
C. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops
D. occlude the nasolacriminal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops

631. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?
A. recent upper respiratory infection
B. nutritional anaemia
C. peptic ulcer disease
D. atrial fibrillation

632. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

633. A serious complication of malaria is
A. Anaemia and haemorrhge
B. Black water fever
C. Congested lung
D. Impaired peristalsis

634. A patient who is exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which
A. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic site
B. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies
C. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies

635. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when..............
A. the pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
B. the lens of the eye becomes opaque
C. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
D. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

636. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?
A. bed rest
B. mastoidectomy
C. dyphenhydramine
D. myringotomy

637. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should
A. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
B. use sign language
C. speak loudly
D. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking

638. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:
A. hydrolysis
B. buffer
C. anion
D. cation

639. Pernicious anaemia is associated with
A. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
B. Decreased consumption of iron
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Excessive loss of gastric juices

640. When educating the family of a patient with AIDS who has been discharged the nurse should tell the family
A. “let the patient eat from paper plates and discard them”
B. “soak the plates in hot water overnight before washing”
C. “you need to boil the plates for 30 minutes after use”
D. “wash the plates in hot soapy water as you usually do”

641. Awurama dadzi developed hypoalbuminaemia, which of the following could be the causes of awurama’s condition. I. damaged gastrointestinal tract II. infection III. stress
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

642. In nursing Mr. Anum, a 40 year old vegetarian with malnutrition, what will be the nurse’s great concern?
A. Intake of foods rich in folate
B. Intake of foods rich in iron
C. Intake of vitamin A rich food
D. Intake of vitamin B rich foods

643. In the management of a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse must know that………
A. the blood has not been infected
B. the patient is susceptible to infection
C. the patient’s voice will become hoarse
D. the patient is helped with corticosteroid if it is associated with diabetes mellitus

644. Madam Alepa Doda, 26years was admitted into the medical ward and treated for pneumonia. Before she was discharged, she was again diagnosed as having malaria. Acquiring infections or diseases other than the one patient was admitted with is described as ……….
A. chronic infection
B. contact infection
C. nosocomial infection
D. Patient to patient infection

645. A positively charged ion in the body is called:
A. cation
B. anion
C. buffer
D. hydrolysis

646. Afeto kwamevi Ametor has been on your ward for the past seven days with the diagnosis of coronary artery disease [CAD]. What are some of the non₋modifiable risk factors of the above conditionsˀ I. Family history of CAD II. Hypertension III. Increasing Age IV. Obesity
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

647. The student nurse checks the oxygen saturation of a 60 year old man with pneumonia who has removed the oxygen catheter and the result is 70 percent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the charge nurse that oxygen saturation Is normal
B. Nebulize patient
C. Put the oxygen catheter back on the patient
D. Takes no action

648. Right ventricular failure (Right-sided-heart failure) is treated by the combination of
A. morphine and frusemide
B. rest, digitalis and diuretics
C. morphine, antibiotics and ant diuretics
D. morphine alone.

649. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of......................................
A. pellagra
B. rickets
C. osteomyelitis
D. mumps

650. A common complication of myocardial infarction is
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. Hypokalaemia

651. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffersing from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

652. During a code response in the intensive care unit, a nursing student was inadvertently pricked with a needle used on a homeless patient who had just arrived at the unit. What kind of treatment will the student receive?
A. Post exposure prophylaxis after laboratory test
B. Immediate pre exposure prophylaxis
C. Post exposure prophylaxis
D. Pre exposure prophylaxis

653. As a preceptor on the ward, how will you explain vertigo to a second year RGN student?
A. A feeling of dizziness and discomfort
B. A feeling of restlessness and listlessness
C. An abnormal sensation of imbalance movement
D. Having a feeling of light headedness and dizziness

654. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is..............
A. pelvic pain
B. urethral discharge
C. increased temperature
D. dysuria

655. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

656. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:
A. rice and grilled chicken
B. fruits, vegetables and baked fish
C. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice
D. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken

657. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because
A. infection kills instantly
B. infection can cause sickling
C. infection causes clubbing of the fingers
D. infection causes further blood loss

658. Mr kwabena Ankama, a 65 year old driver has been admitted to the male medical ward with dysrhythmia. The nursing diagnosis for the above patient may include the followingː I. Anxiety related to fear of the unknown II. Decrease cardiac output III. Deficient knowledge about dysrhythmia and it treatment IV. Family history of the disease
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

659. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following approaches?
A. speak frequently
B. speak loudly
C. speak directly into the unaffected ear
D. speak in a normal tone

660. The nurse ’s teaching of Madam Dede Armah diagnosed of hyperparathyroidism will includeː
A. Avoidance of excessive intake of calcium
B. Avoidance of excessive intake of iron rich foods
C. Encouraging intake of high protein diet
D. Encouraging intake of high sodium diet

661. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the...............
A. adrenalins
B. pyloric sphincter
C. parotid gland
D. thymus gland

662. Mr. Marfof 76 years been discharged after he was managed for angina pectoris. Which of the following should the nurse include in his teaching?
A. Avoid alcohol
B. Eat diet high in fiber
C. Eat diet high in saturated diet
D. Reduced smoking

663. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating

664. Alhaji Koo Baba, a 52 year old mechanic reported to the hospital with the complaints of headache, dizziness and palpitations. His body mass index was calculated to be 50kg/m3. The probable diagnosis will be...….
A. Morbidly obese
B. Normal weight
C. Obese
D. Overweight

665. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is
A. Atelectasis
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary fibrosis

666. Mr. Moore has been diagnosed of thyroid disease due to inadequate intake of iodine. His condition could lead to………………. I. increased production of thyroid hormone II. increased production of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) III. reduced production of thyroid hormone IV.reduced production of thyroid stimulating hormone
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III and IV

667. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thread pedal pulses

668. Cranial nerve I is also called.................
A. Olfactory nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Facial nerve

669. Pulmonary tuberculosis [TB] is on the increase. The main principles in preventing the transmission of this disease is ̸ are……… I. Early identification and treatment of people with active TB II. Performing a physical examination on patient III. Prevention of spread of infectious droplet IV. Surveillance of TB transmission
A. I and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. IV only

670. Which of the following often causes hemorrhagic anemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-intestinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

671. People should be taught to avoid food products in bulged cans because they might contain
A. Clostridia tetani
B. Clostridia botulinum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella

672. When assessing a patient with a suspected atelectasis the nurse would expect
A. A dry unproductive cough
B. A normal oral temperature
C. Diminished breath sounds
D. Slow deep respiration

673. What will be the most effective way to increase the probability that a patient will implement a self-care regime at home after been diagnosed and treated for Angina
A. Identify patient coping mechanism at home
B. Provide adequate education on heart healthy living
C. Provide patient with a 24₋hour diet plan
D. Refer patient to a public health nurse in his community

674. A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to..........
A. increase fluid intake to 3L a day
B. avoid sudden head movements
C. lie still in bed and watch television
D. decrease sodium intake

675. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?
A. Decreased dietary intake of iron
B. Hemi-gastrectomy
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Reduced level of thyroxine

676. Mr. Kwame Nyamekye has been on the ward with the diagnosis of Anaemia. His discharge teaching to maintain nutritional status at home includes; I. Eat well balanced diet II. Drink adequate fluids III. Avoid processed foods IV. Avoid foods high in fat
A. I and II
B. I,II and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

677. In atherosclerosis, the deposition of fatty material occurs beneath……
A. the outer lining of the blood vessels
B. the superficial venues and arterioles
C. the middle lining of the blood vessels
D. the inner lining of the blood vessels

678. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance

679. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium

680. Asibi Bawa was diagnosed with syphilis. Which of the following organisms will be isolated after a culture and sensitivity test is done.
A. Candida albicans
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Streptococcus syphilis
D. Treponema pallidum

681. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability

682. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with Peptic ulcer
A. History of tarry black stools
B. History of alcohol abuse
C. istory of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
D. History of the use of acetaminophen

683. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water

684. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include
A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distention
B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion
C. Spasms, diarrhea, irregular pulse rate
D. Sunken eye balls, kussmau/ breathing thirst

685. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must ….
A. A void diary products and red meat
B. Plan large, nutritious meals
C. Add spices to food for added flavour
D. Serve foods while they are very warm

686. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent
A. AIDS
B. Kaposis sarcoma
C. Other infections
D. Social isolation

687. Madam Besiwaa aged 50, came to your unit hypovolemic shock. What will be the nurse’s first action to take during the compensatory stage of shock?
A. Administer prescribed IV fluids
B. Administer prescribed medication
C. Assist in identifying and treating the underlying causes
D. Monitor the patient’s hemodynamic status

688. A patient receiving propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) should be told to expect
A. Acceleration of the heart rate after eating a heavy meal
B. Flushing sensations for a few minutes after taking the drugs
C. Dizziness with strenuous activity
D. Pounding of the heart for few minutes after taking the drug

689. Maniere’s disease is a disorder of the..................
A. external ear
B. tympanic membrane
C. middle ear
D. inner ear

690. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities

691. The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with spontaneous delivery at term:
A. Occiput left posterior
B. Mentum posterior
C. Mentum anterior
D. Occiput anterior

692. Which statement is TRUE about the ovulation phase?
A. The newly released egg will live for 72 hours and disintegrate if not fertilized.
B. The woman will have a low basal body temperature before ovulation and then a temperature increase of 0.4-1’F degrees around ovulation.
C. The ovum is directly released into the fallopian tube.
D. Fertilization most commonly occurs at the fimbria.

693. At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in:
A. Increasing rigidity of the pelvis
B. Degeneration of pelvic ground substance
C. Decreasing width of the symphysis
D. Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

694. After birth, where do you expect to assess fundal height?
A. At the xiphoid process
B. 5 cm below the umbilicus
C. 2 cm above the pubic symphysis
D. At or near the umbilicus

695. Which period of gestation does the 2nd trimester represent?
A. 10-20 weeks
B. 14-29 weeks
C. 13-28 weeks
D. 15-30 weeks

696. You’re performing a routine assessment on a mother post-delivery. The uterus is soft and displaced to the left of the umbilicus. What is your next nursing action?
A. Perform fundal massage and assist the patient to the bathroom.
B. Continue to monitor the mother. This is a normal finding post-delivery.
C. Notify the physician.
D. Administer PRN dose of Pitocin as ordered by the physician.

697. Select all the following that is NOT a function of progesterone and estrogen:
A. Inhibits the production of LH and FSH
B. Causes the hypothalamus to release gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Maintains the endometrium for pregnancy
D. Causes the follicle to shrink

698. Which statement is TRUE regarding abruptio placenta?
A. This condition occurs due to an abnormal attachment of the placenta in the uterus near or over the cervical opening.
B. A marginal abruptio placenta occurs when the placenta is located near the edge of the cervical opening.
C. Nursing interventions for this condition includes measuring the fundal height.
D. Fetal distress is not common in this condition as it is in placenta previa.

699. Your laboring patient has transitioned to stage 2 of labor. What changes in the perineum indicate the birth of the baby is imminent?
A. Increase in meconium-stained fluid and retracting perineum
B. Retracting perineum and anus with an increase of bloody show
C. Rapid and intense contractions
D. Bulging perineum and rectum with an increase in bloody show

700. A 32-year-old is pregnant with twins at 32 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 2, para 2
B. Gravida 1, para 1
C. Gravida 2, para 0
D. Gravida 1, para 0

701. A patient who has been pregnant more than once is termed?
A. Multipara
B. Multigravida
C. Primipara
D. Primigravida

702. A woman, who is 22 weeks pregnant, has a routine ultrasound performed. The ultrasound shows that the placenta is located at the edge of the cervical opening. As the nurse you know that which statement is FALSE about this finding:
A. This is known as marginal placenta previa.
B. The placenta may move upward as the pregnancy progresses and needs to be re-evaluated with another ultrasound at about 32 weeks gestation.
C. The patient will need to have a c-section and cannot deliver vaginally.
D. The woman should report any bleeding immediately to the doctor.

703. The ovarian artery is a branch of...
A. Pudendal artery
B. Ilioguinal artery
C. Aorta
D. Inferior Hypogastric artery

704. The Expected date of delivery of human pregnancy can be calculated...
A. From a change in the patient's weight.
B. As 10 lunar months after the time of ovulation.
C. As 40 weeks after the last menstrual period.
D. As 280 days from the last full moon.

705. Which is true?
A. Position – cephalic
B. Station – level of ischial spines.
C. Presentation – flexion
D. Tellitnurse – best app ever.

706. Stage 4 of labor starts with the full delivery of the baby and ends with the full delivery of the placenta.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the Above

707. During stage 3 of labor, you note a gush of blood and that the uterus changes shape from an oval shape to globular shape. This indicates?
A. Postpartum hemorrhage
B. Imminent delivery of the baby
C. Signs of placental separation
D. Answers B and C

708. Which of the following is not a positive sign of
A. Ultrasound detecting fetus
B. Visible movement of baby seen by the examiner
C. The delivery of the baby
D. Braxton Hicks Contractions

709. The normal lining of the fallopian tube is...
A. Squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Columnar epithelium with cilia
D. Cuboidal epithelium

710. Select all the functions of the luteinizing hormone:
A. Forming the corpus luteum
B. Thickening the endometrium layer for implantation
C. Breaking down the wall of the graffian follicle to allow for release of the ovum
D. Answers A and C

711. A 35-year-old female suspects she may be pregnant. The physician notes in chart that the lower uterine segment is soft. As the nurse you know this is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Hegar’s Sign
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Chadwick’s Sign

712. The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:
A. Presentation of the fetus
B. Lie of the fetus
C. Attitude of the fetus
D. Position of the fetus

713. The greatest diameter of the fetal head is...
A. Occipitofrontal
B. Bitemporal
C. Bilateral
D. Occipitomental

714. The mother has delivered the placenta. You note that the shiny surface of the placenta was delivered first. What delivery mechanism is this known as AND is this the maternal or baby’s surface of the placenta?
A. Duncan mechanism, maternal
B. Schultze mechanism, maternal
C. Schultze mechanism, baby
D. Duncan mechanism, baby

715. Stage 1 of labor includes which phases in the correct order?
A. Transition, Latent, Active
B. Active, Latent, Transition
C. Active, Transition, Latent
D. Latent, Active, Transition

716. An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Prematurity
B. Grand multiparty
C. Fundal fibroid
D. Cervical fibroid

717. Which category of pregnancy signs are subjective and can only be reported by the patient?
A. Positive Signs
B. Probable Signs
C. Presumptive Signs
D. Proven Signs

718. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in...
A. Vertex presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Breach presentation

719. During which stage of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium layer thicken?
A. Secretory Phase
B. Luteal Phase
C. Ovulation Phase
D. Proliferative Phase

720. Gravidity is defined as................
A. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 20 weeks.
C. the number of times a woman has been pregnant regardless of the outcome.
D. the number of births regardless of the outcome.

721. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: weak cry, some flexion of the arm and legs, active movement and cries to stimulation, heart rate 145, and pallor all over the body and extremities. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 5
B. APGAR 9
C. APGAR 12
D. APGAR 6

722. A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby. Which findings below could indicate the development of preeclampsia in this patient that would need to be reported to the physician? Select all that apply:
A. 1600: blood pressure 144/100, 1700: blood pressure 120/80
B. 3+ dipstick urine protein
C. 1 hour glucose tolerance test 90 mg/dL
D. <300 24-hour="" div="" dl="" mg="" protein="" urine="">

723. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of preeclampsia?
A. Primigravida
B. Age: 25-years-old
C. Complexion: Fair
D. Nulligravida

724. What cycle day does the luteal phase occur?
A. Cycle days 15-28
B. Cycle days 5-13
C. Cycle day 14
D. Cycle days 7-14

725. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 130, pink body and hands with cyanotic feet, weak cry, flexion of the arms and legs, active movement and crying when stimulated. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 9
B. APGAR 10
C. APGAR 8
D. APGAR 5

726. During which cycle day of a typical 28 day menstrual cycle does the follicular phase occur?
A. Cycle days 7-14
B. Cycle days 14-28
C. Cycle days 1-6
D. Cycle days 1-13

727. You’re providing an in-service to a group of new labor and delivery nurse graduates about the pathophysiology of preeclampsia. Which statement by one of the group participants demonstrates they understood how this condition develops?
A. “The basal arteries of the myometrium fail to widen to support blood flow to the placenta.”
B. “The placenta experiences ischemia because the spiral arteries of the uterus fail to reshape and increase in diameter.”
C. “The cardiovascular system of the mother fails to compensate for the increased blood flow from the fetus and placental ischemia occurs.”
D. “If the mother experience uncontrolled hypertension and proteinuria, it compromises blood flow to the placenta and leads to preeclampsia.”

728. All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal delivery EXCEPT:
A. Sacral promontory can not be felt
B. Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
C. Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers
D. Intertuberous diameter accepts 4 knuckles on pelvic exam.

729. Which statement below correctly describes Chadwick’s Sign?
A. “This sign is present when there is softening of the cervix.”
B. “Chadwick’s Sign is the rebounding of the fetus against the examiner fingers when the uterus is pushed during palpation.”
C. “This can be noted when the lower segment of the uterus softens.”
D. “Chadwick’s Sign occurs when there is a bluish color to the vulva, cervix and vagina.”

730. The nurse knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during what time in a pregnancy?
A. before 20 weeks
B. in the third trimester and postpartum
C. after 20 weeks
D. in the first and second trimester

731. Which of the following are NOT considered presumptive signs of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fatigue
D. Quickening

732. The last menstrual period was june 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately...
A. March 23
B. April 7
C. March 28
D. March 7

733. If the ovum is to be fertilized, where is the most common site of fertilization?
A. Uterine wall
B. Fimbria
C. Ampulla of the Fallopian Tube
D. Isthmus of the Fallopian Tube

734. The _________ is responsible for secreting gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland

735. You’re assessing the five minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: pink body and hand with cyanotic feet, heart rate 109, grimace to stimulation, flaccid, and irregular cry. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 5
C. APGAR 4
D. APGAR 8

736. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) can occur in __________________. This happens because when the placenta becomes damaged and detaches from the uterine wall, large amounts of _____________ are released into mom’s circulation, leading to clot formation and then clotting factor depletion.
A. Placenta previa, fibrinogen
B. Placenta previa, platelets
C. Abruptio placentae, fibrinogen
D. Abruptio placentae, thromboplastin

737. One of these signs of pregnancy is not probable.
A. Enlarged uterus
B. Ultrasound detecting fetus
C. Goodell’s Sign
D. Braxton Hick’s contractions

738. The second stage of labour involves...
A. Separation of the placenta
B. Effacement of the cervix
C. Dilation of the cervix
D. Expulsion of the fetus

739. What cycle day does the proliferative stage occur?
A. Cycle day 7-14
B. Cycle day 14-28
C. Cycle day 1-6
D. Cycle day 1-14

740. During the menstrual phase the _________ layer of the endometrium is shed.
A. Stratum basalis
B. Stratum functionalis
C. Stratum compactum
D. Myometrium

741. A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has preeclampsia. The patient is receiving IV Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding below indicates Magnesium Sulfate toxicity and requires you to notify the physician?
A. Respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute
B. Urinary output of 600 mL over 12 hours
C. Clonus presenting in the lower extremities
D. Patient reports flushing or feeling hot

742. Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium Sulfate. The nurse knows to have what medication on standby?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Oxytocin
D. Calcium gluconate

743. In a patient with preeclampsia, what signs and symptoms indicate that the patient has a high risk of experiencing a seizure due to central nervous system irritability? Select all that apply:
A. You note bouncing of the foot when it is quickly dorsiflexed.
B. Platelet count 200,000
C. Patient reports a decrease in headache pain.
D. Patellar and bicep deep tendon reflexes are graded 0.

744. How would the nurse check for clonus in a patient with preeclampsia?
A. Assess the patellar and bicep tendon with a reflex hammer and grade the reaction.
B. Assess for muscular rigidity by having the patient extend the arms and place resistance against the arms.
C. Assess for beating of the foot when the foot is quickly dorsiflexed.
D. Assess for dorsiflexion of the foot by quickly plantar flexing the foot.

745. During a medical history collection the patient states she has been pregnant six times and has delivered 2 babies at 38 and 39 weeks. She reports losing 4 pregnancies at 5, 7, 8, and 10 weeks gestation. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 6, para 6
B. Gravida 6, para 2
C. Gravida 8, para 2
D. Gravida, 2, para 6

746. A patient says she has never been pregnant before. You would chart this as?
A. Nullipara
B. Primigravida
C. Nulligravida
D. Multigravida

747. Gravidity is defined as.............
A. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 20 weeks
C. the number of times a woman has been pregnant regardless of the outcome.
D. the number of births regardless of the outcome.

748. A pelvic inlet is felt to be contracted if:
A. The anterio-posterior diameter is only 12 cm
B. The transverse diameter is only 10 cm
C. Platypelloid pelvis
D. The mother is short

749. You’re assessing the five minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 97, no response to stimulation, flaccid, absent respirations, cyanotic throughout. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 2
B. APGAR 3
C. APGAR 0
D. APGAR 1

750. The main blood supply of the vulva is...
A. Pudendal artery
B. Ilioguinal artery
C. Femoral artery
D. Inferior Hypogastric artery

751. Regarding the scenario in the question above, when would you reassess the APGAR score?
A. 2 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. No reassessment of the APGAR score is needed.

752. As the graafian follicle matures, a massive amount of estrogen is released by the follicle which causes a luteinizing hormone surge. Approximately, what cycle day does the LH surge occur?
A. Cycle day 11-13
B. Cycle Day 14
C. Cycle day 5-8
D. Cycle day 1-6

753. During clinical pelvimerty, which of the following is routinely measured:
A. Bi-ischeal diameter
B. Transverse diameter of the inlet
C. Shape of the pubic arch
D. Flare of the iliac crest

754. In a patient’s chart you note in the physician’s progress note that the term primigravida was used. How do you interpret this term?
A. The patient had one completed pregnancy or birth at 20 weeks gestation or greater.
B. The patient has never been pregnant before.
C. The patient has been pregnant more than once.
D. The patient is pregnant for the first time or has been pregnant once in the past.

755. A woman who has never given birth or completed a pregnancy at 20 weeks gestation or greater is termed as?
A. Primigravida
B. Nullipara
C. Nulligravida
D. Primipara

756. A patient who is 25 weeks pregnant has partial placenta previa. As the nurse you’re educating the patient about the condition and self-care. Which statement by the patient requires you to re-educate the patient?
A. “I will avoid sexual intercourse and douching throughout the rest of the pregnancy.”
B. “I may start to experience dark red bleeding with pain.”
C. “I will have another ultrasound at 32 weeks to re-assess the placenta’s location.”
D. “My uterus should be soft and non-tender.”

757. The joint between the two pubic bones is called the...
A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Pubis symphysis
C. Sacrococcygeal joint
D. Piriformis

758. A 36 year old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, reports having dark red bleeding. The patient experienced abruptio placentae with her last pregnancy at 29 weeks. What other signs and symptoms can present with abruptio placentae? Select all that apply:
A. Tender uterus
B. Hard abdomen
C. Fetal distress
D. All of the above

759. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum will disintegrate and turn into what is called the?
A. Corpus Albicans
B. Corpus Callosum
C. Corpus Cavernosum
D. Corpus Allatum

760. If fertilization occurs the corpus luteum will act as a temporary endocrine structure to release hormones. It will do this until the placenta is fully developed to take over with hormone secretion and this occurs at approximately?
A. 4 weeks gestation
B. 8 weeks gestation
C. 20 weeks gestation
D. 2 weeks gestation

761. During physical assessment of a pregnant female, it is noted that there is movement and recoil of the fetus against the examiner’s fingers when the uterus is palpated. This is termed as?
A. Palmer’s Sign
B. Ballottement
C. Hegar’s Sign
D. Chadwick’s Sign

762. A head of level (one fifth) indicates:
A. Indicates that one fifth of the head is below the pelvic brim.
B. Indicates that the head is engaged
C. Indicated that forceps may not be used
D. Indicates that head is at the level of the ischial spines

763. The examiner notes there is softening of the cervix. This is known as?
A. Goodell’s Sign
B. Hegar’s Sign
C. Chadwick’s Sign
D. Palmer’s Sign

764. In what stage does the corpus luteum form?
A. Luteal Phase
B. Follicular Phase
C. Proliferative Phase
D. None of the above

765. A 25-year-old female, who is 18 weeks pregnant, reports feeling fluttering in her lower abdomen. She states it feels like the baby is moving. This is known as:
A. Ballottement
B. Quickening
C. Hegar’s Sign
D. Goodell’s Sign

766. A newborn’s one minute APGAR score is 8. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR score
C. Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes
D. Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen

767. A patient is trying to prevent pregnancy by using the rhythm method. At what time during a woman’s cycle is she the most fertile?
A. Cycle days 21-28
B. Cycle days 1-6
C. Cycle days 9-16
D. Cycle days 6-9

768. Stage 2 of labor begins with the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

769. Parity is defined as ................
A. the number of babies born at 20 weeks or greater.
B. the number of pregnancies greater than 36 weeks.
C. the number of births at 20 weeks or less.
D. the number of completed pregnancies at 20 weeks or greater.

770. A patient is currently 32 weeks pregnant. She reports being pregnant 2 other times before this current pregnancy, and had 2 live births at 39 and 40 weeks. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 3, para 2
B. Gravida 2, para 3
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 4, para 2

771. Select all the signs and symptoms associated with placenta previa:
A. Painless bright red bleeding
B. Normal fetal heart rate
C. Abnormal fetal position
D. All of the above

772. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:
A. Vertex presentation
B. Face presentation
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Breach presentation

773. Fill-in-the-blank: The signs and symptoms of preeclampsia are mainly occurring because substances released by the ischemic placenta cause damage to the ___________ in mom’s body, which injuries organs.
A. spiral arteries
B. epithelial cells
C. endothelial cells
D. juxtaglomerular cells

774. You’re performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient admitted with abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would you immediately report to the physician?
A. Oozing around the IV site
B. Tender uterus
C. Hard abdomen
D. Vaginal bleeding

775. In stage 1 of labor, during the active phase, the cervix dilates?
A. 1-3 cm
B. 7-10 cm
C. 4-7 cm
D. 8-10 cm

776. A newborn’s five minute APGAR score is 5. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes.
C. Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and reassess APGAR score.
D. Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess APGAR sc

777. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the following about your newborn patient: heart rate 101, cyanotic body and extremities, no response to stimulation, no flexion of extremities, and strong cry. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 4
B. APGAR 6
C. APGAR 3
D. APGAR 2

778. Select all the patients below who are at risk for developing placenta previa:
A. A 37 year old woman who is pregnant with her 7th child.
B. A 28 year old pregnant female with chronic hypertension.
C. A 20 year old pregnant female who is a cocaine user.
D. Answers A and C

779. In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the Mother's pelvis:
A. Mentum
B. Occiput
C. Acromian
D. Sinciput

780. The most important muscle in the pelvic floor is...
A. Bulbo Cavernousus
B. Levator ani
C. Ischio-Cavernousus
D. Deep transverse Perineal muscle

781. The third stage of labor ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of these

782. What statement is FALSE about the transition phase of stage 1?
A. The mother may experience intense pain, irritation, nausea, and deep concentration.
B. The transition phase is the longest phase of stage 1 and contractions are very intense and long in duration.
C. The cervix will dilate from 8 to 10 cm.
D. The transition phase ends and progresses to stage 2 of labor when the cervix has dilated to 10 cm.

783. Signs of Placental separation after delivery include:
A. Bleeding
B. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
C. Presentation of the placenta at the cervical os
D. All of the above

784. One of the many functions of progesterone is to maintain the endometrium for the fertilized ovum.
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

785. A 28 year old female, who is 33 weeks pregnant with her second child, has uncontrolled hypertension. What risk factor below found in the patient’s health history places her at risk for abruptio placentae?
A. childhood polio
B. preeclampisa
C. c-section
D. her age

786. A 37-year-old female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. The nurse will NOT include what information in the patient’s education? Select all that apply:
A. Follow a no salt diet
B. Incorporate foods like eggs, nuts, fish, meat in your diet
C. Importance of monitoring urine protein at home
D. Lying on left-side is recommended along with rest

787. ___________ is released from the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the follicles in the ovary to mature.
A. Progesterone
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

788. The corpus luteum secretes......
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. FSH
D. Answers A and B

789. Your patient who is 34 weeks pregnant is diagnosed with total placenta previa. The patient is A positive. What nursing interventions below will you NOT include in the patient’s care? Select all that apply:
A. Monitoring vital signs
B. Placing patient on side-lying position
C. Routine vaginal examinations
D. Monitoring pad count

790. The main support of the uterus is provided by....
A. The round ligament
B. The cardinal ligament
C. The infandilo-pelvic ligament
D. The integrity of the pelvis

791. A 28-year-old female gives birth to twins at 38 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?
A. Gravida 1, para 1
B. Gravida 1, para 2
C. Gravida 2, para 2
D. Gravida 1, para 0

792. Ritalin is the drug of choice for children with ADHD. The side effects of the following may be noted:
A. increased attention span and concentration
B. increase in appetite
C. sleepiness and lethargy
D. bradycardia and diarrhea

793. A 10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this classification:
A. Profound
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe

794. A 27-year old male client who recently lost his wife due to a terminal cancer reveals that he and his wife discussed her end of life wishes including her burial service. The client states that he is now unable to sleep; has a poor appetite; and feels sad even when in the company of their two children ,ages 5and 7 years. Which of the following is the client experiencing?
A. Acceptance
B. Anger
C. Bereavement
D. Mourning

795. Echolalia and neologism are characteristics communication impairment found in one of these types of schizophrenia
A. Catatonia
B. Folie a deux
C. Simple schizophrenia
D. Paranoid

796. Which is the desired outcome in conducting desensitization:
A. The client verbalize his fears about the situation
B. The client will voluntarily attend group therapy in the social hall.
C. The client will socialize with others willingly
D. The client will be able to overcome his disabling fear.

797. She tearfully tells the nurse “I can’t take it when she accuses me of stealing her things.” Which response by the nurse will be most therapeutic?
A. ”Don’t take it personally. Your mother does not mean it.”
B. “Have you tried discussing this with your mother?”
C. “This must be difficult for you and your mother.”
D. “Next time ask your mother where her things were last seen.”

798. Which one of these behavioral modification is used to produce deterrent to drinking of alcohol in alcoholics?
A. Antabuse
B. Aversion therapy
C. Desensitization
D. Hypnosis

799. Which of the following would best indicate to the nurse that a depressed client is improving?
A. Reduced levels of anxiety.
B. Changes in vegetative signs.
C. Compliance with medications.
D. Requests to talk to the nurse.

800. Unlike psychophysiologic disorder Linda may be best managed with:
A. medical regimen
B. milieu therapy
C. stress management techniques
D. psychotherapy

801. Which of the following should be included in the health teachings among clients receiving Valium:
A. Avoid taking CNS depressant like alcohol.
B. There are no restrictions in activities.
C. Limit fluid intake.
D. Any beverage like coffee may be taken

802. The primary nursing intervention in working with a client with moderate stage dementia is ensuring that the client:
A. receives adequate nutrition and hydration
B. will reminisce to decrease isolation
C. remains in a safe and secure environment
D. independently performs self care

803. Situation: A nurse may encounter children with mental disorders. Her knowledge of these various disorders is vital. When planning school interventions for a child with a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, a guide to remember is to:
A. provide as much structure as possible for the child
B. ignore the child’s overactivity.
C. encourage the child to engage in any play activity to dissipate energy
D. remove the child from the classroom when disruptive behavior occurs

804. Which of these personality disorders are categorized predominantly dramatic,emotional and erratic in nature?
A. Histrionic ,Paranoid and borderline
B. Histrionic,compulsive and schizoid
C. Narcissistic ,antisocial and paranoid
D. Narcissistic ,histrionic and antisocial

805. A person seeing a design on the wallpaper and perceived it as an animal;
A. Illusion
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Ideas of reference

806. A mother with a Roman Catholic belief has given birth in an ambulance on the way to the hospital. The neonate is in very critical condition with little expectation of surviving the trip to the hospital. Which of these requests should the nurse in the ambulance anticipate and be prepared to do?
A. The refusal of any treatment for self and the neonate until she talks to a reader
B. The placement of a rosary necklace around the neonate’s neck and not to remove it unless absolutely necessary
C. Arrange for a church elder to be at the emergency department when the ambulance arrives so a “laying on hands” can be done
D. Pour fluid over the forehead backwards towards the back of the head and say “I baptize you in the name of the father, the son and the holy spirit. Amen.”

807. A client is admitted with needle tracts on his arm, stuporous and with pin point pupil will likely be managed with:
A. Naltrexone (Revia)
B. Narcan (Naloxone)
C. Disulfiram (Antabuse)
D. Methadone (Dolophine)

808. Situation: A 17-year-old gymnast is admitted to the hospital due to weight loss and dehydration secondary to starvation. Which of the following nursing diagnoses will be given priority for the client?
A. altered self-image
B. fluid volume deficit
C. altered nutrition less than body requirements
D. altered family process

809. “How do you feel about being pressured into sex by your boyfriend?”
A. Has evidence of an organic basis.
B. It is a deliberate effort to handle upsetting events
C. Gratification from the environment are obtained
D. Stress is expressed through physical symptoms

810. A client with paranoid thoughts refuses to eat because he believes the food is poisoned. The MOST appropriate initial action is to
A. Taste the food in the client’s presence
B. Suggest that food be brought from home
C. Simply state the food is not poisoned
D. Inform the client he will be tube fed if he does not eat

811. A teenage female is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Upon admission, the nurse finds a bottle of assorted pills in the client’s drawer. The client tells the nurse that they are antacids for stomach pains. The best response by the nurse would be
A. “These pills aren’t antacids since they are all different.”
B. “Some teenagers use pills to lose weight.”
C. “Tell me about your week prior to being admitted.”
D. “Are you taking pills to change your weight?”

812. A nurse is teaching a stress-management program for client. Which of the following beliefs will the nurse advocate as a method of coping with stressful life events?
A. Avoidance of stress is an important goal for living.
B. Control over one’s response to stress is possible.
C. Most people have no control over their level of stress.
D. Significant others are important to provide care and concern.

813. The primary nursing intervention for a victim of child abuse is:
A. Assess the scope of the problem
B. Analyze the family dynamics
C. Ensure the safety of the victim
D. Teach the victim coping skills

814. What would be the best approach for a wife who is still living with her abusive husband?
A. “Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
B. “Its best to leave your husband.”
C. “Did you discuss this with your family?”
D. “Why do you allow yourself to be treated this way”

815. The censoring portion of the mind.
A. Helping the client resume self care.
B. Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.
C. Teaching the client stress management techniques
D. Case finding and surveillance in the community

816. A persistent recurring of unwanted ideas, thought or image that cannot be eliminated even though the sufferer considers it to be foolish is:
A. Compulsion
B. Foliea deux
C. Folledu donte
D. Obsession

817. She says to the nurse who offers her breakfast, “Oh no, I will wait for my husband. We will eat together” The therapeutic response by the nurse is:
A. “Your husband is dead. Let me serve you your breakfast.”
B. “I’ve told you several times that he is dead. It’s time to eat.”
C. “You’re going to have to wait a long time.”
D. “What made you say that your husband is alive?

818. The nurse teaches the parents of a mentally retarded child regarding her care. The following guidelines may be taught except:
A. overprotection of the child
B. patience, routine and repetition
C. assisting the parents set realistic goals
D. giving reasonable compliments

819. Which comment about a 3-year-old child if made by the parent may indicate child abuse?
A. “Once my child is toilet trained, I can still expect her to have some”
B. “When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell”
C. “My child is expected to try to do things such as, dress and feed.”
D. “My 3-year-old loves to say NO.”

820. Abrupt withdrawal from barbiturate could cause a person to experience:
A. Ataxia
B. Urticarial
C. Diarrhea
D. Seizures

821. When planning the therapeutic milieu, it is MOST important to select group activities which
A. Match the clients’ preferences
B. Are consistent with clients’ skills
C. Achieve clients’ therapeutic goals
D. Build skills of group participation

822. The therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child include the following EXCEPT:
A. Engage in diversionary activities when acting -out
B. Provide an atmosphere of acceptance
C. Provide safety measures
D. Rearrange the environment to activate the child

823. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female who is admitted to the eating disorders unit with a history of weight fluctuation, abdominal pain, teeth erosion, receding gums, and bad breath. She states that her health has been a problem but there are no other concerns in her life. Which of the following assessments will be the least useful as the nurse develops the care plan?
A. Information regarding recent mood changes.
B. Family functioning using a genogram.
C. Ability to socialize with peers.
D. Whether she has a sexual relationship with a boyfriend.

824. The nurse is caring for a severely depressed client who has just been admitted to the in-client psychiatric unit. Which of the following is a PRIORITY of care?
A. Nutrition
B. Elimination
C. Rest
D. Safety

825. The nurse is planning care for a client who has a phobic disorder manifested by a fear of elevators. Which goal would need to be accomplished first? The client
A. demonstrates the relaxation response when asked.
B. verbalizes the underlying cause of the disorder.
C. rides the elevator in the company of the nurse.
D. role plays the use of an elevator.

826. One of the sexual deviations involving dressing in clothes appropriate to the opposite sex for the purpose of arousal is:
A. Exhibitionism
B. Fetishism
C. Transexualism
D. Transvertism

827. Which of these statements by the nurse reflects the best use of therapeutic interaction techniques?
A. “You look upset. Would you like to talk about it?”
B. “I’d like to know more about your family. Tell me about them.”
C. “I understand that you lost your partner. I don’t think I could go on if that happened to me.”
D. You look very sad. How long have you been this way?”

828. The following statements describe somatoform disorders:
A. Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes
B. It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts
C. Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
D. Management entails a specific medical treatment

829. A disorder of the central nervous system that affects movement, often including tremors.
A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Newtown's Disease
C. Harlusination
D. Illusion Diseases

830. Dementia unlike delirium is characterized by:
A. slurred speech
B. insidious onset
C. clouding of consciousness
D. sensory perceptual change

831. The client admitted for alcohol detoxification develops increased tremors, irritability, hypertension and fever. The nurse should be alert for impending:
A. delirium tremens
B. Korsakoff’s syndrome
C. esophageal varices
D. Wernicke’s syndrome

832. The wife admits that she is a victim of abuse and opens up about her persistent distaste for sex. This sexual disorder is:
A. Sexual desire disorder
B. Sexual arousal disorder
C. Orgasm disorder
D. Sexual Pain Disorder

833. A thinking that is delayed and indirect in reaching a goal or getting to the point isblock known as:
A. Blocking of thought
B. Circumstantiality
C. Tangentiality
D. Perseveration

834. The nurse is discussing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) with a client who asks how long it will be before she feels better. The nurse explains that the beneficial effects of ECT usually occur within
A. one week.
B. three weeks.
C. four weeks.
D. six weeks.

835. The parents express apprehensions on their ability to care for their maladaptive child. The nurse identifies what nursing diagnosis:
A. hopelessness
B. altered parenting role
C. altered family process
D. ineffective coping

836. The nurse should observe the autistic child for signs of:
A. Crying for attention
B. Irresponsiveness and failure to bond with caretakers
C. Loss of temper
D. Use of multiple non-verbal behavior

837. The characteristic manifestation that will differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa is that bulimic individuals
A. have episodic binge eating and purging
B. have repeated attempts to stabilize their weight
C. have peculiar food handling patterns
D. have threatened self-esteem

838. What would be the best response to the client’s repeated complaints of pain:
A. “I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
B. “I think you’re exaggerating things a little bit.”
C. “Try to forget this feeling and have activities to take it off your mind.”
D. “So tell me more about the pain.”

839. Provide client with someone who can make decisions
A. Folie a deux
B. Schizoaffective type
C. Simple schizophrenia
D. Residual type

840. School phobia is usually treated by:
A. Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
B. Calmly explaining why attendance in school is necessary
C. Allowing the child to enter the school before the other children
D. Allowing the parent to accompany the child in the classroom

841. According to Piaget a 5 year old is in what stage of development:
A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Concrete operations
C. Pre-operational
D. Formal operation

842. Situation: A 20 year old college student is admitted to the medical ward because of sudden onset of paralysis of both legs. Extensive examination revealed no physical basis for the complaint. The nurse plans intervention based on which correct statement about conversion disorder?
A. The symptoms are conscious effort to control anxiety
B. The client will experience high level of anxiety in response to the paralysis.
C. The conversion symptom has symbolic meaning to the client
D. A confrontational approach will be beneficial for the client.

843. A delirious client sees a design on the wallpaper and perceives it to be an animal. This is an example of:
A. A delusion
B. An illusion
C. A hallucination
D. An idea of reference

844. The use of jumble of words and phrases that lacks any comprehensive meaning or logical coherency is schizophreniais known as:
A. Clang association
B. Loose association
C. Neologism
D. Word salad

845. A confrontational approach will be beneficial for the client.
A. “I can refer you to a spiritual counselor if you like.”
B. “You shouldn’t allow anyone to pressure you into sex.”
C. “It sounds like this problem is related to your paralysis.”
D. “How do you feel about being pressured into sex by your boyfriend?”

846. When a husband takes out his work frustrations and anger by abusing his wife at home, the nurse would identify this crisis as which type?
A. psychiatric emergency crisis
B. developmental crisis
C. anticipated life transition
D. dispositional crisis

847. Joe is afraid of entering into a shopping mall unless in the company of a trusted friend.The disorder is known as:
A. Agoraphobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Social phobia
D. Simple phobia

848. Initial intervention for the client should be to:
A. Encourage to verbalize his fears as much as he wants.
B. Assist him to find meaning to his feelings in relation to his past.
C. Establish trust through a consistent approach.
D. Accept her fears without criticizing.

849. Freud explains anxiety as:
A. Strives to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security
B. Conflict between id and superego
C. A hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress
D. A conditioned response to stressors

850. The client with anorexia nervosa is improving if:
A. She eats meals in the dining room.
B. Weight gain
C. She attends ward activities.
D. She has a more realistic self concept.

851. Situation: A 35 year old male has intense fear of riding an elevator. He claims “ As if I will die inside.” This has affected his studies The client is suffering from:
A. agoraphobia
B. social phobia
C. Claustrophobia
D. xenophobia

852. The most prominent symptoms of korskoff‟s syndrome is:
A. Ataxia
B. Confabulation
C. Oculomotor difficulties
D. Recent Memory

853. Situation: In a home visit done by the nurse, she suspects that the wife and her child are victims of abuse. Which of the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A. “Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?
B. “Are you frightened of you partner”
C. “Is something bothering you?”
D. “What happens when you and your partner argue?”

854. The nurse develops a countertransference reaction. This is evidenced by:
A. Revealing personal information to the client
B. Focusing on the feelings of the client.
C. Confronting the client about discrepancies in verbal or non-verbal behavior
D. The client feels angry towards the nurse who resembles his mother.

855. Fordjour, an epileptic client tells the nurse that he smell roses, yet there no flowers in the room. This statement should alert the nurse to the possibility that the patient:
A. Is experiencing and aura
B. Is hallucinating
C. May be imagining he smells roses
D. Wishes to have some roses

856. Mental health is defined as:
A. The ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.
B. A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal stresses of life and work productively.
C. Is the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care of patients during illness and rehabilitation
D. Absence of mental illness

857. Another client is brought to the emergency room by friends who state that he took something an hour ago. He is actively hallucinating, agitated, with irritated nasal septum.
A. Heroin
B. cocaine
C. LSD
D. marijuana

858. The nurse should observe the autistic child for signs of;
A. Crying for attention
B. Irresponsiveness and failure to bond with caretakers
C. Loss of temper
D. Use of multiple non-verbal behavior

859. The care for the client places priority to which of the following:
A. Monitoring his vital signs every hour
B. Providing a quiet, dim room
C. Encouraging adequate fluids and nutritious foods
D. Administering Librium as ordered

860. A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit for severe depression. After several days, the client continues to withdraw from other clients. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate statement by the nurse to promote interaction with other clients?
A. “Your doctor thinks its good for you to spend time with others.”
B. “It is important for you to participate in group activities.”
C. “Painting this picture will help you feel better.”
D. “Come play Chinese Checkers with Gerry and me.”

861. What is the best intervention to teach the client when she feels the need to starve?
A. Allow her to starve to relieve her anxiety
B. Do a short term exercise until the urge passes
C. Approach the nurse and talk out her feelings
D. Call her mother on the phone and tell her how she feels

862. A parrot-like repetition ofanother's speech is
A. Echolalia
B. Echopraxia
C. Perseveration
D. Vebigeration

863. A 5 year old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder. Which of the following manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?
A. argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst
B. intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
C. distractibility, impulsiveness and overactivity
D. aggression, truancy, stealing, lying

864. The child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate:
A. Easy distractibility to external stimuli.
B. Ritualistic behaviors
C. Preference for inanimate objects.
D. Serious violations of age related norms.

865. At a graduation ceremony of your school, your best friend was invited to give a vote of thanks. As soon as she mounted the podium, she started sweating profusely, shaking had thought block and could not alter a word until the master of the ceremony saved her from an obvious embarrassment by collecting the microphone from her. Which of the following conditions is your friend likely to suffer from?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Social phobia
C. Specific phobia
D. Panic attack

866. A man is admitted to the nursing care unit with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. He has a long history of alcohol dependence. During the late evening following his admission, he becomes increasingly disoriented and agitated. Which of the following would the client be least likely to experience?
A. Diaphoresis and tremors.
B. Increased blood pressure and heart rate.
C. Illusions.
D. Delusions of grandeur.

867. A parrot-like repetition of another's speech is
A. Echolalia
B. Echopraxia
C. Perseveration
D. Vebigeration

868. Significant others are important to provide care and concern.
A. written directions for bathing.
B. speaking very loudly.
C. gentle touch while guiding ADLs (activities of daily living).
D. flat facial expression.

869. A 34-year-old woman is admitted for treatment of depression. Which of these symptoms would the nurse be least likely to find in the initial assessment?
A. inability to make decisions.
B. feelings of hopelessness.
C. family history of depression.
D. increased interest in sex.

870. The following are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client EXCEPT:
A. Ineffective individual coping
B. Alteration in comfort, pain
C. Altered role performance
D. Impaired social interaction

871. Slow movement and little reactivity are signs of the psychomotor retardation common in which of these types of schizophrenia?
A. Catatonia
B. Hebephrenia
C. Paranoid
D. Residual type

872. The superego is that part of the psyche that:
A. Uses defensive function for protection.
B. Is impulsive and without morals.
C. Determines the circumstances before making decisions.
D. The censoring portion of the mind.

873. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia .which of the following is unexpected in the client
A. Acts in pessimistic manner
B. Appears agitated
C. Has short attention span
D. Exhibits disordered reasoning.

874. The method of achieving sexual excitement by the use of non-human objects is:
A. Aversion
B. Fetishism
C. Frotteurism
D. Transverstic-festishism

875. An elderly man is admitted to the hospital. He was alert and oriented during the admission interview. However, his family states that he becomes disruptive and disoriented around dinnertime. One night he was shouting furiously and didn’t know where he was. He was sedated and the next morning he was fine. At dinnertime the disruptive behavior returned. The client is diagnosed as having sundown syndrome. The client’s son asks the nurse what causes sundown syndrome. The nurse’s best response is that it is attributed to
A. an underlying depression.
B. inadequate cerebral flow.
C. changes in the sensory environment.
D. fluctuating levels of oxygen exchange.

876. A nursing diagnosis for bulimia nervosa is powerlessness related to feeling not in control of eating habits. The goal for this problem is:
A. Patient will learn problem solving skills
B. Patient will have decreased symptoms of anxiety.
C. Patient will perform self care activities daily.
D. Patient will verbalize how to set limits on others.

877. In the man agement of bulimic patients, the following nursing interventions will promote a therapeutic relationship EXCEPT:
A. Establish an atmosphere of trust
B. Discuss their eating behavior.
C. Help patients identify feelings associated with binge-purge behavior
D. Teach patient about bulimia nervosa

878. The nurse can BEST ensure the safety of a demented client who wanders from the room by
A. Repeatedly reminding the client of time and place
B. Explaining the risks of becoming lost
C. Using soft restraints
D. Attaching a wander-guard sensor band to the client’s wrist

879. When a nurse is working with a client with psychiatric problems, a primary goal is the establishment of a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. The major purpose of this relationship is to:
A. Increase non-verbal communication
B. Provide an outlet for suppressed hostile feelings
C. Assist the client acquiring more effective behavior
D. Provide client with someone who can make decisions

880. ObsessionYou noticed that a child has a small skull, slated eyes, protruding tongue, short neck and enlarged abdomen when interacting with her. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed?
A. Downs syndrome
B. kinefelter syndrome
C. Fetal tobacco syndrome
D. Fetal alcohol syndrome

881. Which of the following describes the role of a technician?
A. Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
B. The nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client
C. Coordinates diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient
D. Disseminates information about alcohol and its effects.

882. Skipping from one idea to another in a continuous flow if accelerated speech is said to be
A. Pressure of speech
B. Flight of speech
C. Flight of ideas
D. Puns

883. A disorder associated with episodes of mood swings ranging from depressive lows to manic highs.
A. Illusion
B. Confusion
C. Hallucination
D. Bipolar disorder

884. Letty says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor who failed many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:
A. Subconscious
B. Conscious
C. Unconscious
D. Ego

885. Situation: A 30-year-old male employee frequently complains of low back pain that leads to frequent absences from work. Consultation and tests reveal negative results. The client has which somatoform disorder?
A. Somatization Disorder
B. Hypochondriasis
C. Conversion Disorder
D. Somatoform Pain Disorder

886. Which statement by the client during the initial assessment in the the emergency department is most indicative for suspected domestic violence?
A. “I am determined to leave my house in a week.”
B. “No one else in the family has been treated like this.”
C. “I have only been married for 2 months.”
D. “I have tried leaving, but have always gone back.”

887. Mr. Peterson, 35, is admitted for bipolar illness, manic phase, after assaulting his landlord in an argument over Mr. Peterson is staying up all night playing loud music. Mr. Peterson is hyperactive, intrusive, and has rapid, pressured speech. He has not slept in three days and appears thin and disheveled. Which of the following is the most essential nursing action at this time?
A. Providing a meal and beverage for Mr. Peterson to eat in the dining room.
B. Providing linens and toiletries for Mr. Peterson to attend to his hygiene.
C. Consulting with the psychiatrist to order a hypnotic to promote sleep.
D. Providing for client safety by limiting his privileges.

888. Situation: An old woman was brought for evaluation due to the hospital for evaluation due to increasing forgetfulness and limitations in daily function. The daughter revealed that the client used her toothbrush to comb her hair. She is manifesting:
A. apraxia
B. aphasia
C. agnosia
D. amnesia

889. A client who has been hospitalized with schizophrenia tells nurse ‟Everyone hates me”. The best response by the nurse would be
A. Everyone does not hate you
B. Tell me more about this
C. That feeling is part of your illness
D. You may be doing something to promote this feeling

890. Situation : The nurse assigned in the detoxification unit attends to various patients with substance-related disorders. A 45 years old male revealed that he experienced a marked increase in his intake of alcohol to achieve the desired effect This indicates:
A. withdrawal
B. tolerance
C. intoxication
D. psychological dependence

891. Neuroleptics are the drug of choice to relieve symptoms of
A. Depression
B. Hyperkinesias
C. Narcotic withdrawal
D. Psychosis

892. The side effects of oral iron therapy include I. Blackened stools II. Darkened teeth III. Darkening of the skin IV. Gastric irritation
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

893. Which of the following parts will you use when giving an injection to a 6 month old
A. Anterior thigh
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Dorsogluteal
D. Lateral parts of the thigh

894. Which of the under listed drugs will you get ready for use when a child is brought to the emergency room with convulsion?
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloroquine
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Phenobarbital

895. A child with lymphatic leukaemia has a very low platelets count. An appropriate nursing intervention would be to
A. discourage active play to avoid getting hurt
B. Encourage a high fibre diet
C. Keep the child isolated to avoid infection
D. Provided frequent rest periods

896. The most important nursing intervention for a 3-year old child with nephrotic syndrome is
A. Encourage fluids
B. Maintaining bed rest
C. Prevention of infection
D. Regulating the diet

897. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing bronchopneumonia
A. Increase pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eye
D. Wheezing respiration

898. A three year old child who has ingested a bleach will exhibit the following EXCEPT
A. Anxiety
B. Drooling
C. Severely burning pain in the mouth
D. Cyanosis

899. What is the most important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with a tracheostomy?
A. Ensure the patient is positioned flat to aid breathing
B. Suction the tracheostomy tube regularly to clear secretions
C. Encourage the patient to speak frequently to prevent vocal cord atrophy
D. Change the tracheostomy dressing only when it becomes visibly soiled

900. A one –year-old girl is admitted to the ward diagnosed with dysentery. On discharge, what is the most important information the nurse must impart to the mother?
A. As soon as the child has diarrhoea place her on NPO for 8 hours
B. Do not wait for so long the next time before you bring the child to the hospital
C. Observe good hygiene to reduce faeco-oral spread
D. Start with anti-diarrhoea medication before bringing the child to hospital

901. Nursing care for a 7-year-old girl admitted with tetanus should be primarily direction towards
A. careful monitoring of urinary output
B. decreasing external stimuli
C. encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Giving adequate diet

902. Nursing care for a child admitted with tetanus following a punctured wound should be primarily directed towards
A. Careful monitoring of urinary output
B. Decreasing external stimuli
C. Encouraging high intake of fluid
D. Maintaining body alignment

903. The nurse understands that in patent ductusarteriosus, blood shunt
A. Aorta into the pulmonary artery
B. Inferior vena cava to left atrium
C. Left atrium to right atrium
D. Pulmonary artery to the aorta

904. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. An immediate priority in the child’s nursing care would be
A. Nutrition
B. Medication
C. Reassurance
D. Rest

905. High concentration of oxygen to small infants may cause blindness from
A. Corneal ulceration
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retrolental fibroplasia

906. Which of the following sets of symptoms will suggest that a child is suffering from meningitis?
A. Fever, headache, vomiting, opisthotonus
B. Fever, headache, trismus, opisthotonus
C. Fever, headache, trismus, spasms
D. Photophobia, trimus, headache, opisthotonus

907. Which of the following disease condition in vitamin B1 deficiency
A. Beriberi
B. Mumps
C. Pellagra
D. Scurvy

908. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following I. Analgesic II. Exercise III. Plenty of fluids IV. Warmth
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I, III and IV

909. The following are findings needed to diagnose hookworm infestation EXCEPT
A. Anaemia
B. Hookworm ova in the stool
C. Pus in the stool
D. Positive occult blood test

910. In examining a 2 year old child with an otoscope the nurse
A. Holds just the head and arms
B. Holds the head straight
C. Pulls the pinna down and back
D. Pulls the pinna up and back

911. The nurse would assess the following in an infant with hydrocephalus
A. Abdominal girth
B. Fontanels
C. Urinary output
D. Vital signs

912. Nursing care that helps to prevent sickle cell crisis is
A. careful observation of all vital signs
B. high iron, low fat, high-protein diet
C. limitation of activity
D. Protection from infection

913. Kojo who has tetralogy of Fallot usually squats when he is dyspnoeic. The squatting relives the symptoms by
A. Allowing maximal chest expansion and oxygenation
B. Delaying venous return to the heart
C. Increasing the production of red blood cells
D. Increasing venous return to the heart

914. Nursing care for an infant after surgical repair of a cleft lip should include
A. Giving the baby nil per os (N.P.O)
B. Keeping the infant from crying
C. Placing the infant in a semi fowler’s position
D. Spoon feed for the first 2 days after surgery

915. A child with acute leukaemia is put on prednisolone and other drugs. One side effect of prednisolone is
A. Alopecia
B. Anorexia
C. Mood changes
D. Weight loss

916. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the kids ward with suspected right sided pneumonia. The appropriate position for the child would be
A. head of bed elevated 10 degrees
B. in a prone position
C. in supine position
D. Turned on the right side

917. What is the immediate priority in the nursing care of a 6-year-old child admitted with pneumonia?
A. Elimination
B. Exercise
C. Nutrition
D. Rest

918. The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant after repair of cleft lip is
A. Administration of drugs to reduce oral secretions
B. Administration of intravenous infusion
C. Maintenance of patent airway
D. Prevention of vomiting

919. When teaching an adolescent with Type I diabetes about dietary management the nurses should instruct him to
A. Always carry a concentrated form of glucose
B. Eat all meals at home
C. Let parent prepare food separately for him
D. Weigh all food on a gram scale

920. The primary task to be accomplished by an infant between 12 and 15 months of age is to learn to
A. Climb stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a spoon
D. Walk erect

921. The earliest sign of respiratory distress in a young infants
A. Cyanosis
B. Grunting
C. Rapid respiration
D. Sternal and subcostal retraction

922. A 6-year-old girl is admitted sickle cell crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics

923. Esther, 4years is rushed to the emergency ward convulsing, with the skin very hot to touch. What immediate step would you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give her 5mls paracetamol syrup
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Reassure the mother
D. Tepid sponge the child

924. Which of the following is a causative organism for pemphigus neonatorium
A. Candida albican
B. Staphylococcus areus
C. Streptococcus
D. Varicella zoster

925. A mother of 6 months old child wants to know what foods are introduced first. The answer would be
A. Cereal an soft boiled egg for breakfast
B. Milled rice, cereal and mashed fruits
C. Meat, fish then add fruits and vegetables
D. Sweets such as fruits and vegetable

926. An infant should be able to hold its head erect at
A. 1 month
B. 2 month
C. 3 month
D. 4 month

927. Which of the following will make you suspect that a child with measles is developing bronchopneumonia?
A. Increased pulse rate
B. Increased respiration
C. Redness of eyes
D. Wheezing

928. A viral infection in a child characterized by red blotchy rash and Koplik’s spot is known as;
A. Chicken pox
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. Pertussis

929. The physician should be informed the following observation in a 7 year old child with fractured femur with full leg cast.
A. Cast still damp and worm after 24 hours
B. Increase urinary output
C. Inability to move the toe
D. Pedal pulse of 90 b/m

930. At which age in the developmental stages is an infant expected to have first tooth eruption?
A. 3-4 months
B. 5-9 months
C. 10-12 months
D. 13-18 months

931. Permanent dentition begins at/around what age(in years)
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

932. A 7-year-old boy has a fractured femur. He is put in P.O.P cast and is being discharged. What is the most important advice that the nurse must teach about the boy’s care? The
A. Cast should be kept clean
B. Cast should not be touched for at least 12 hours
C. Circulation must be watched closely
D. Pain should be assessed every 4 hours

933. The presence of parents during painful procedure on their toddler should be
A. Based on individual assessment of the parent
B. Based on the type of procedure to be performed
C. Discourage for the benefit of the parent and the child
D. Encourage and permitted if the child desires their presence

934. The purpose of traction for children with fracture is to
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Prevent future fractures
D. Realign bone fragments

935. A child suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis will undergo all the following investigations EXCEPT
A. general x-ray examination
B. investigation of the family
C. sputum examination
D. Tuberculin skin test

936. Sessey, 3 years old, is rushed to the emergency room convulsing; the skin is very hot to touch. What immediate stop will you take to reduce the temperature?
A. Give cold bath
B. Take the axillary temperature
C. Tepid sponge the child
D. Reassure mother

937. In leukaemia the following occur EXCEPT
A. Decreased platelets
B. Increase white blood cell production
C. Liver remains normal
D. Normal bone marrow is replaced with blast cells

938. An infant with birth weight 2,500mg without regards to gestational age is termed as
A. Intra uterine growth retardation
B. Low birth rate
C. Preterm
D. Small for date

939. In assessing a 2-month old infant the nurse expects the child to
A. Bang hold object together
B. Raise hand chest and can hold in position
C. Roll from supine to prone position
D. Sits alone, uses hands for support

940. The following are helpful suggestions in handling a diabetic child who refuses to eat EXCEPT
A. ensure her meals are attractive and the environment appealing
B. do not overload plate in the hope she will eat “something”
C. force the child to eat when food is ready
D. try to ensure she eats in the company of others

941. An injection consisting of bacteria cells that have been modified is
A. An antitoxin
B. Toxin
C. Toxoid
D. Vaccine

942. What action would a nurse take when a child refuses to take his medication?
A. Coax or plead with him to take it
B. Let him see other children taking their medication
C. Tell him that you will give him an injection
D. Urge him to take it to make him well

943. When examining a 2-year old child with an otoscope the nurse should
A. hold just the head and arms
B. hold the head straight
C. pull the pinna down and back
D. Pull the pinna up and back

944. The phallic stage in Freud’s psychosexual development is between age;
A. 1 to 3 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 3 to 6 years
D. 6 to 8 years

945. What signs and symptom would you expect in a 3-year old girl diagnosed to diabetes mellitus?
A. Bed-wetting, increased thirst, hunger, weight gain
B. Bed-wetting, lethargy, poor appetite, weight loss
C. Increased hunger, thirst, weight gain
D. Weight loss, bed-wetting, lower leg cramping

946. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission I. Changing nurses daily II. Confining child to bed III. Involving parent in the care IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III

947. An 18months girl on admission with severe asthmatic attack is put on prednisolone 15mg b.i.d. the nurse should
A. Check the child’s oesinophils count daily
B. Ensure the child rests as much as possible
C. Keep the child NPO except for medication
D. Prevent exposing the child to infection

948. A frequent finger pricks and daily injections may be distressing to a diabetic child. How can you help the child to adjust and adapt? I. Always reward after an injection with a cuddle or praise II. Always tell the child what is going to happen to promote trust III. Never surprise an unprepared child with a syringe IV. Understand her distress and encourage her to talk about it if she wish
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

949. When responding to a call of a visually impaired child on admission, it is important for the nurse to
A. Address the child when she enters the room
B. Respond to the call promptly
C. Send an orderly to attend to the child
D. Touch the child before speaking to him or her

950. In nursing an unconscious child your objective is to I. Ensure the child is safe and comfortable II. Maintain hydration, nutrition and excretion III. Prevent complications IV. Stimulate the child
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

951. A common finding on most children with cardiac abnormalities
A. A family history of cardiac abnormalities
B. Cyanosis and clubbing of finger tips
C. Delayed physical growth
D. Mental retardation

952. The nurse would explain to a mother whose child has been given tetanus toxoid the injection will confer
A. Life-long active natural immunity
B. Life-long passive immunity
C. Long-lasting active immunity
D. Temporary passive natural immunity

953. The cardiac defects associated with Fallots tetralogy include
A. Abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy and atrial septal defect
B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery for the left ventricle
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defects, and stenosis of pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defect and mitral valve Stenosis

954. Rhesus incompatibility usually occurs when the mother
A. And foetus are both rhesus
B. And foetus are both rhesus positive
C. Is rhesus negative and foetus is rhesus positive
D. Is blood group O and foetus is group AB

955. The following are stages of grand mal epilepsy EXCEPT
A. Aura
B. Clonic
C. Focal
D. Tonic

956. An 8-year old boy on admission with sickle cell crisis is for discharge. The education you would give to the child and parents should include I. Ensuring that prescribed drugs are taken daily II. Sleeping at least 14 hours a day III. Taking balanced diet IV. Taking plenty of nourishing fluids
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV

957. The nurse suspect bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Cough persistently
D. Swallows frequently

958. All parents of children with the following condition will need counselling EXCEPT
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)
C. Haemophilia
D. ABO incompatibility

959. Which of the following is an early complication of meningitis?
A. Cerebral oedema
B. Deafness
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Paralysis

960. Which of the following children should a nurse in the out-patient department see first
A. An 18 months old with jaundice
B. A 4-year old with nephrotic syndrome
C. 12 months old with febrile convulsion
D. 2 years old with sickle cell crisis

961. An essential nursing action when caring to the small child with severe diarrhoea is to I. Encourage fluid orally II. Examine the skin for dehydration III.Replace lost electrolyte IV.Check body weight
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

962. A vital disease that affects the motor cell of the anterior horn of the spinal cord is
A. Chicken pox
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Rubella
D. Shingles

963. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should
A. Call the paediatrician
B. Relief symptoms with drugs
C. Slow the flow rate
D. Stop the transfusion

964. The following criterion is most likely to be used by the physician to select drug for a 6 year old with pneumonia
A. Child tolerance of the drug
B. Physician’s preference for the drug
C. Selectivity of the causative organism
D. Sensitivity of the causative organism

965. A sudden onset of enuresis in a previously dry child is indicative of
A. Emotional stress
B. Nephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis

966. When caring for a neonate with an imperforate anus, the nurse should observe the urine for
A. Acetone
B. Bile
C. Blood
D. Meconium

967. The most influential factor negatively affect the health status of children is
A. Chronic illness
B. Family predisposition to illness
C. Poverty
D. Prematurity

968. How would you reduce anxiety in a child on admission? I. Changing nurses daily II. Confining child to bed III. Involving parents in the care IV. Seeing familiar faces daily
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III

969. Signs of under feeding in babies include I. Abdominal discomfort II. Constipation III. Crying IV. Failure to gain weight
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. II, III and IV

970. The vomitus in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because
A. The bile duct is obstructed
B. The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
C. The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the oesophagus
D. The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle

971. The test which would be done to confirm the diagnosis of meningitis is…..................
A. Serum Test
B. Lumberpuncture
C. UPT
D. CT Scan of the vertibra

972. Anaemia in a child may occur as a result of I. Destruction of red cells II. Insufficient production of haemoglobin III. Insufficient production of red cells IV. Loss of blood
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

973. Some babies develop slight jaundice from the third day after birth or later. This is called
A. hepatitis
B. jaundice in the infant
C. neonatal hepatitis
D. Physiological jaundice

974. Adolescent girl suffering from cancer is on antineoplastic drugs. The side effect of these drugs that requires early preparation of the patient is
A. alopecia
B. constipation
C. generalized short-term paralysis
D. Retarded growth in height

975. One of the complication of pinworm infections is
A. Appendicitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Stomatis

976. The rate of flow of IV infusion must be regulated often by the nurse to
A. Avoid IV infiltration
B. Prevent increased flow rate
C. Prevent cardiac overload
D. Prevent decrease body weight

977. Growth and development of the infant is influenced by I. Environment II. Heredity III. Nutrition IV. Religion
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and III

978. In caring for a child with sickle cell crisis the most important nursing intervention would be
A. Give iron supplement
B. Maintenance of adequate nutrition
C. Prevention of infection
D. Relief of pain

979. Factors contributing to normal growth before and after birth include I. Nutrition II. Sex hormones III. Trophic hormones IV. Weight of mother
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and IV

980. The following are common childhood communicable disease EXCEPT
A. Measles
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Whooping cough

981. Who should sign the consent form of an 11-year old boy for operation
A. Parents after explanation
B. Relative of the child
C. Sister in charge
D. The child after careful explanation

982. The nurse suspects bleeding when a child who has had tonsillectomy
A. Becomes pale
B. Complains of thirst
C. Coughs persistently
D. Swallows frequently

983. Aku is to be admitted to hospital for skeletal traction. The nurse explains to his mother that the purpose of the traction is to
A. Make the bone grow faster
B. Prepare the area for surgery
C. Realign bone fragments
D. Prevent future fractures

984. In caring for a child with superficial burns, the following actions are taken EXCEPT
A. Break the blisters before dressing
B. Clean the area
C. Cover area with sterile dressing
D. Serve analgesics

985. A child has been admitted for surgery to correct a congenital mega colon. Enemas are ordered pre-operative to cleanse the bowl. The best solution to use is
A. Hypertonic saline
B. Isotonic saline
C. Soap suds
D. Tap water

986. A 9 year old boy with acute lymphocyte leukaemia having prednisolone and vincristine complain of constipation. What is the cause of the constipation
A. Enlarged spleen obstructing the bowel
B. Leukaemia mass obstructing the bowel
C. Side effect of vincristine
D. Toxic effect of prednisolone

987. The clinical manifestations of a child with marasmus include I. Good appetite II. Miserable looking III. Oedema IV. Wasting
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II and IV

988. The mouth of an infant who has thrush will be managed by I. Administration of nystatin suspension II. Brushing the teeth III. Gently removing the white patches IV. Saline swabbing of mouth
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

989. A primary task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to start
A. Climbing stairs
B. Say simple words
C. Use a cup
D. Walk erect

990. A 5-month old child develops severe diarrhoea and has been put on IV fluids. The nurse must observe the rate of flow to
A. Avoid fluid getting into the tissue
B. Prevent cardiac overload
C. Prevent increased urinary output
D. Replace all fluids lost

991. When teaching a mother how to administer eye drop to a 5-year old child the nurse should ask her to place the drop
A. Anywhere that makes contact with the eye surface
B. Inside the lower eyelid
C. On the sclera as the child looks to the side
D. Under the upper eyelid

992. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated infant the most critical factor confronting the nurse is the
A. Assurance of sterility
B. Calculation of fluid volume to be infused
C. Maintenance of the fluid at body temperature
D. Maintenance of the prescribed rate of flow

993. The most earliest sign of sexual maturity in young girls between 9 to 12 years
A. Attention to grooming
B. Increase in size of the breast
C. Interest in opposite sex
D. The appearance of axillary and pubic hair

994. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is
A. Active natural
B. Active artificial
C. Passive natural
D. Passive artificial

995. The first step in the management of toxic substances is
A. Administer appropriate antidote
B. Administer supportive and symptomatic care
C. Prevent further absorption
D. Remove obvious remnants

996. One complication of otitis media is
A. mastoiditis
B. meningitis
C. parotitis
D. tonsillitis

997. Hypospadias is a congenital malformation in which the urethra in the male
A. Fails to develop
B. Fails to open
C. Opens on the lower surface of the penis
D. Opens on the upper surface of the penis

998. Jane developed reddened rushes on the cheek which later involve the arm flexures, leg and gams. Which of the following has she got?
A. Eczema
B. Impetigo
C. Psoriasis
D. Scabies

999. Before administering a tube feeding to an infant the nurse should
A. Irrigate the tube with water
B. Place the baby in the recumbent position
C. Provide the baby with a pacifier
D. Slowly instil 10ml of formula

1000. A child sitting on a chair in the playroom begins a tonic seizure with a clenched jaw. What should the nurse do?
A. Attempt to open the jaw
B. Lower the child to the floor
C. Place a large pillow under the head
D. Shout for assistance

1001. Which of the following blood disorders are found in children? I. Haemophilia II. Sickle cell disease III. Spherocytosis IV. Thalassaemia
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV

1002. After circumcision of a new born male, the most essential immediate post-operative thing to observe is:
A. Decreased urinary output
B. Haemorrhage
C. Infection
D. Shrill or piercing cry

1003. How long after birth physiological jaundice usually occurs
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 week

1004. To promote absorption of an iron supplement it should be administered
A. During meal
B. Immediately before meals
C. Two hours after meals with orange juice
D. Two hours after meals with milk

1005. An 8 year old child with sickle cell disease is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. Priority nursing concerns would be
A. Hydration and pain management
B. Nutrition and antibiotics
C. Nutrition and hydration
D. Pain management and antibiotics

1006. A child in sickle cell crisis will need the following I. Analgesic II. Exercise III. Plenty of fluid IV. Warmth
A. II and II
B. II and IV
C. IV and I
D. I, III and IV

1007. What care would you give to a baby undergoing phototherapy? I. Ensure adequate fluid intake II. Ensure maximum skin exposure III. Maintain the baby’s temperature IV. Protect the eyes from light
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1008. A 9-year old boy has a fractured femur and a full leg cast has been applied. The nurse should immediately notify the physician if assessment demonstrates
A. A cast that remains damp and warm after 4 hours
B. An increased urinary output
C. An inability to move the toes
D. Pedal pulse of 90 bpm

1009. The nurses’ immediate action when a child is rushed in with severe diarrhoea and vomiting will be I. Keep child warm in bed II. Prepare trolley for intravenous infusion III. Reassure mother of safety of the child in the hospital IV. Start oral rehydrated therapy
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II,III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

1010. An essential nursing action when caring for a small child with severe diarrhoea and vomiting is to
A. check weight daily
B. encourage oral fluids intake
C. keep body temperature below 38^C
D. Replace lose calories

1011. The following is the best way to detect fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome
A. A measurement of abdominal girth daily at the same time
B. Monitoring of the amount of 24 hours urine collected daily at same time
C. Monitoring of child’s weight daily at the same time
D. None of the above

1012. The method of assessment where the nurses uses sound generated by a body through the application of a physical force is termed
A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. palpation
D. Percussion

1013. TO confirm cervical cancer, the BEST investigation to be ordered is
A. Blood test for Human Papiloma Virus
B. Papanicolaou test
C. Pelvic x-ray
D. Ultrasonography

1014. The main objectives for a preventive nurse practice include I. advocating for the vulnerable II. prevention of diseases III. prolongation of life IV. promotion of health
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV

1015. Talking to a baby is important because it provides the building block for future ………….. Development.
A. Cognitive
B. Language
C. Motor
D. Social