1001 - 1100 Solved NCLEX Styled Practical MCQ Test Questions Bank

1001. The nurse at a college campus is preparing to medicate several students who have been exposed to meningococcal meningitis. Which would the nurse most likely administer?
A. Ampicillin (Omnipen)
B. Ciprofoxacin (Cipro)
C. Vancomycin (Vancocin)
D. Piperacillin/Tazobactam (Zosyn)

1002. A 65-year-old client is admitted after a stroke. Which nursing intervention would best improve tissue perfusion to prevent skin problems?
A. Assessing the skin daily for breakdown
B. Massaging any erythematous areas on the skin
C. Changing incontinence pads as soon as they become soiled with urine or feces
D. Performing range-of-motion exercises and turning and repositioning the client

1003. Which diet selection by a client with a decubitus ulcer would indicate a clear understanding of the proper diet for healing of the ulcer?
A. Tossed salad, milk, and a slice of caramel cake
B. Vegetable soup and crackers, and a glass of iced tea
C. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, wheat roll, and an orange
D. Hamburger, French fries, and corn on the cob

1004. The nurse is assessing elderly clients at a community center. Which of the following findings would be the most cause for concern?
A. Dry mouth
B. Loss of one inch of height in the last year
C. Stiffened joints
D. Rales bilaterally on chest auscultation

1005. A client with chronic pain is being treated with opioid administration via epidural route. Which medication would it be most important to have available due to a possible complication of this pain relief procedure?
A. Ketorolac (Toradol)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

1006. The nurse is assessing an adult female client for hypovolemia. Which laboratory result would help the nurse in confirming a volume deficit?
A. Hematocrit 55%
B. Potassium 5.0mEq/L
C. Urine specific gravity 1.016
D. BUN 18mg/dL

1007. A nurse is triaging in the emergency room when a client enters complaining of muscle cramps and a feeling of exhaustion after a running competition. Which of the following would the nurse suspect?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia

1008. A client was transferred to the hospital unit as a direct admit. While the nurse is obtaining part of the admission history information, the client suddenly becomes semiconscious. Assessment reveals a systolic BP of 70, heart rate of 130, and respiratory rate of 24. What is the nurse’s best initial action?
A. Lower the head of the client’s bed.
B. Initiate an IV with a large bore needle.
C. Notify the physician of the assessment results.
D. Call for the cardiopulmonary resuscitation team.

1009. The nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction on the cardiac unit. The client is exhibiting symptoms of shock. Which clinical manifestation is the best indicator that the shock is cardiogenic rather than anaphylactic?
A. BP 90/60
B. Chest pain
C. Increased anxiety
D. Temp 98.6°F

1010. While reading the progress notes on a client with cancer, the nurse notes a TNM classification of T1, N1, M0. What does this classification indicate?
A. The tumor is in situ, no regional lymph nodes are involved, and there is no metastasis.
B. No evidence of primary tumor exists, lymph nodes can’t be assessed, and metastasis can’t be assessed.
C. The tumor is extended, with regional lymph node involvement and distant metastasis.
D. The tumor is extended and regional lymph nodes are involved, but there is no metastasis.

1011. The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who has received the drug Daunorubicin (Cerubidine). Which of the following common side effects would cause the most concern?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Alopecia

1012. The nurse is caring for an organ donor client with a severe head injury from an MVA. Which of the following is most important when caring for the organ donor client?
A. Maintenance of the BP at 90mmHg or greater
B. Maintenance of a normal temperature
C. Keeping the hematocrit at less than 28%
D. Ensuring a urinary output of at least 300mL/hr

1013. A client is being admitted with syndrome of inappropriate diuretic hormone. Which does the nurse expect to observe?

Select all that apply.
I. Increased thirst
II. Tachycardia
III. Polyuria
IV. Hostility
V. Muscle weakness
A. IV and V only
B. I only
C. II, IV, V
D. None of the Above

1014. A client with a fractured leg is exhibiting shortness of breath, pain upon deep breathing, and hemoptysis. What do these clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
D. Tension pneumothorax

1015. A nurse is preparing to mix and administer chemotherapy. What equipment would be unnecessary to obtain?
A. Surgical gloves
B. Luer lok fitting IV tubing
C. Surgical hat cover
D. Disposable long-sleeve gown

1016. The charge nurse is assigning staff for the day. Staff consists of an RN, an LPN, and a certified nursing assistant. Which client assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?
A. Exploratory laparotomy with a colon resection the previous shift
B. Client with a stroke who has been hospitalized for two days
C. A client with metastatic cancer on PCA morphine
D. A new admission with diverticulitis

1017. The registered nurse is making shift assignments. Which client should be assigned to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
A. A client who is a diabetic with a foot ulcer
B. A client with a deep vein thrombosis receiving intravenous heparin
C. A client being weaned from a tracheostomy
D. A post-operative cholecystectomy with a T-tube

1018. A client with metastatic cancer of the lung has just been told the prognosis by the oncologist. The nurse hears the client state, “I don’t believe the doctor; I think he has me confused with another patient.” This is an example of which of Kubler-Ross’ stages of dying?
A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Depression
D. Bargaining

1019. The surgical nurse is preparing a patient for surgery on the lower abdomen. In which position would the nurse most likely place the client for surgery on this area?
A. Lithotomy
B. Sim’s
C. Prone
D. Trendelenburg

1020. The nurse is performing a history on a client admitted for surgery in the morning. Which long-term medication in the client’s history would be most important to report to the physician?
A. Prednisone
B. Lisinopril (Zestril)
C. Docusate (Colace)
D. Oscal D

1021. A nurse is working in an endoscopy recovery area. Many of the clients are administered midazolam (Versed) to provide conscious sedation. Which medication is important to have available as an antidote for Versed?
A. Diazepam (Valium)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Florinef (Fludrocortisone)

1022. The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is complaining of being nauseated and is requesting an emesis basin. Which action would the nurse take first?
A. Administer an ordered antiemetic.
B. Obtain an ice bag and apply to the client’s throat.
C. Turn the client to one side.
D. Notify the physician.

1023. The nurse is assessing a client who had a colon resection two days ago. The client states, “I feel like my stitches have burst loose.” Upon further assessment, dehiscence of the wound is noted. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Immediately place the client in the prone position.
B. Apply a sterile, saline-moistened dressing to the wound.
C. Administer atropine to decrease abdominal secretions.
D. Wrap the abdomen with an ACE bandage.

1024. A client with hepatitis C is scheduled for a liver biopsy. Which would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
A. The client should lie on the left side after the procedure.
B. Cleansing enemas should be given the morning of the procedure.
C. Blood coagulation studies might be done before the biopsy.
D. The procedure is noninvasive and causes no pain.

1025. The nurse is caring for a client after a laryngectomy. The client is anxious, with a respiratory rate of 32 and an oxygen saturation of 88. What should be the initial nursing action?
A. Suction the client.
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate.
C. Notify the physician.
D. Recheck the O2 saturation reading.

1026. The nurse is performing discharge teaching to a client who is on isoniazid (INH). Which diet selection by the client indicates to the nurse that further instruction is needed?
A. Tuna casserole
B. Ham salad sandwich
C. Baked potato
D. Broiled beef roast

1027. A client with a head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor in place. Cerebral perfusion pressure calculations are ordered. If the client’s ICP is 22 and the mean pressure reading is 70, what is the client’s cerebral perfusion pressure?
A. 92
B. 72
C. 58
D. 48

1028. A student nurse is observing a neurological nurse perform an assessment. When the nurse asks the client to “stick out his tongue,” the nurse is assessing the function of which cranial nerve?
A. II optic
B. I olfactory
C. X vagus
D. XII hypoglossal

1029. Which set of vital signs would best indicate to the nurse that a client has an increase in intracranial pressure?
A. BP 180/70, pulse 50, respirations 16, temperature 101°F
B. BP 100/70, pulse 64, respirations 20, temperature 98.6°F
C. BP 96/70, pulse 132, respirations 20, temperature 98.6°F
D. BP 130/80, pulse 50, respirations 18, temperature 99.6°F

1030. The nurse is assessing the laboratory results of a client scheduled to receive phenytoin sodium (Dilantin). The Dilantin level, drawn two hours ago, is 30mcg/mL. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the Dilantin as scheduled.
B. Hold the scheduled dose and notify the physician.
C. Decrease the dosage from 100mg to 50mg.
D. Increase the dosage to 200mg from 100mg.

1031. A client with sickle cell disease is admitted in active labor. Which nursing intervention would be most helpful in preventing a sickling crisis?
A. Obtaining blood pressures every two hours
B. Administering pain medication every three hours as ordered
C. Monitoring arterial blood gas results
D. Administering IV fluids at ordered rate of 200mL/hr

1032. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia. Which of the following signs or symptoms would indicate that the client has been noncompliant with ordered B12 injections?
A. Hyperactivity in the evening hours
B. Weight gain
C. Paresthesia of hands and feet
D. Diarrhea stools

1033. The nurse has performed nutritional teaching on a client with gout who is placed on a low-purine diet. Which selection by the client would indicate that teaching has been ineffective?
A. Boiled cabbage
B. Apple
C. Peach cobbler
D. Spinach

1034. The nurse is caring for a 70-year-old client with hypovolemia who is receiving a blood transfusion. Assessment findings reveal crackles on chest auscultation and distended neck veins. What is the nurse’s initial action?
A. Slow the transfusion.
B. Document the finding as the only action.
C. Stop the blood transfusion and turn on the normal saline.
D. Assess the client’s pupils.

1035. The orthopedic nurse should be particularly alert for a fat embolus in which of the following clients having the greatest risk for this complication after a fracture?
A. A 50-year-old with a fractured fibula
B. A 20-year-old female with a wrist fracture
C. A 21-year-old male with a fractured femur
D. An 8-year-old with a fractured arm

1036. The nurse has performed discharge teaching to a client in need of a high-iron diet. The nurse recognizes that teaching has been effective when the client selects which meal plan?
A. Hamburger, French fries, and orange juice
B. Sliced veal, spinach salad, and whole-wheat roll
C. Vegetable lasagna, Caesar salad, and toast
D. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich; potato chips; and tea

1037. An elderly female is admitted with a fractured right femoral neck. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find?
A. Free movement of the right leg
B. Abduction of the right leg
C. Internal rotation of the right hip
D. Shortening of the right leg

1038. The nurse is evaluating teaching effectiveness on a client with a gastrointestinal disorder prescribed a gluten-free diet. Which diet choice indicates that the client understands the instructions given?
A. Steamed broccoli
B. Wheat toast
C. Chocolate chip cookie
D. Bran cereal

1039. A client with asthma has an order to begin an aminophylline IV infusion. Which piece of equipment is essential for the nurse to safely administer the medication?
A. Large bore intravenous catheter
B. IV inline filter
C. IV infusion device
D. Cover to prevent exposure of solution to light

1040. The nurse caring for a client with anemia recognizes which clinical manifestation as the one that is specific for a hemolytic type of anemia?
A. Jaundice
B. Anorexia
C. Tachycardia
D. Fatigue

1041. A client with cancer who is receiving chemotherapeutic drugs has been given injections of pegfilgastrim (Neulasta). Which laboratory value reveals that the drug is producing the desired effect?
A. Hemoglobin of 13.5g/dL
B. White blood cells count of 6,000/mm
C. Platelet count of 300,000/mm
D. Hematocrit of 39%

1042. The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with polycythemia vera. Which would be included in the teaching plan?
A. Avoid large crowds and exposure to people who are ill.
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated at night.
C. Wear socks and gloves when going outside.
D. Recognize clinical manifestations of thrombosis.

1043. A client is being discharged after lithotripsy for removal of a kidney stone. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse’s instructions?
A. “I’ll need to strain my urine starting in the morning.”
B. “I will need to save all my urine.”
C. “I will be careful to strain all the urine and save the stone.”
D. “I won’t need to strain my urine now that the procedure is complete.”

1044. The nurse is caring for a client with osteoporosis who is being discharged on alendronate (Fosamax). Which statement would indicate a need for further teaching?
A. “I should take the medication immediately before bedtime every night.”
B. “I should remain in an upright position for 30 minutes after taking Fosamax.”
C. “The medication should be taken by mouth with water.”
D. “I should not have any food with this medication.”

1045. A client is being evaluated for carpel tunnel syndrome. The nurse is observed tapping over the median nerve in the wrist and asking the client if there is pain or tingling. Which assessment is the nurse performing?
A. Phalen’s maneuver
B. Tinel’s sign
C. Kernig’s sign
D. Brudzinski’s sign

1046. The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a fractured femur. Which diet selection would be best for this client?
A. Loaded baked potato, fried chicken, and tea
B. Dressed cheeseburger, French fries, and a Diet Coke
C. Tuna fish salad on sourdough bread, potato chips, and skim milk
D. Mandarin orange salad, broiled chicken, and milk

1047. The nurse working in the emergency department realizes that it would be contraindicated to induce vomiting if someone had ingested which of the following?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Vitamins
D. Gasoline

1048. A client with AIDS has impaired nutrition due to diarrhea. The nurse teaches the client about the need to avoid certain foods. Which diet selection by the client would indicate a need for further teaching?
A. Tossed salad
B. Baked chicken
C. Broiled fish
D. Steamed rice

1049. The nurse has just received a report from the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
A. A 50-year-old COPD client with a PCO2 of 50
B. A 24-year-old admitted after an MVA complaining of shortness of breath
C. A client with cancer requesting pain medication
D. A one-day post-operative cholecystectomy with a temperature of 100°F

1050. The nurse is performing a breast exam on a client when she discovers a mass. Which characteristic of the mass would best indicate a reason for concern?
A. Tender to the touch
B. Regular shape
C. Moves easily
D. Firm to the touch

1051. The nurse is caring for a client after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a fractured tibia, and bone is noted protruding through the skin. Which action is of priority?
A. Provide manual traction above and below the leg.
B. Cover the bone area with a sterile dressing.
C. Apply an ACE bandage around the entire lower limb.
D. Place the client in the prone position.

1052. The RN on the oncology unit is preparing to mix and administer amphoteracin B (Fungizone) to a client. Which action is contraindicated for administering this drug IV?
A. Mix the drug with normal saline solution.
B. Administer the drug over 4–6 hours.
C. Hydrate with IV fluids two hours before the infusion is scheduled to begin.
D. Premedicate the client with ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol) and diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

1053. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client on the oncology unit. Which clinical manifestation indicates an acute hemolytic reaction to the blood?
A. Low back pain
B. Headache
C. Urticaria
D. Neck vein distention

1054. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with metastatic cancer of the bone. The client is exhibiting mental confusion and a BP of 150/100. Which laboratory value would correlate with the client’s symptoms reflecting a common complication with this diagnosis?
A. Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
B. Calcium 13mg/dL
C. Inorganic phosphorus 1.7mEq/L
D. Sodium 138mEq/L

1055. A client with a stroke and malnutrition has been placed on Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). The nurse notes air entering the client via the central line. Which initial action is most appropriate?
A. Notify the physician.
B. Elevate the head of the bed.
C. Place the client in the left lateral decubitus position.
D. Stop the TPN and hang D5 1/2 NS.

1056. The nurse is preparing a client for cervical uterine radiation implant insertion. Which will be included in the teaching plan?
A. TV or telephone use will not be allowed while the implant is in place.
B. A Foley catheter is usually inserted.
C. A high-fiber diet is recommended.
D. Excretions will be considered radioactive.

1057. The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has an intracranial pressure monitor in place. Assessment reveals an ICP reading of 66. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Notify the physician.
B. Record the reading as the only action.
C. Turn the client and recheck the reading.
D. Place the client supine.

1058. The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who is receiving the drug doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Which toxic effects of this drug would be reported to the physician immediately?
A. Rales and distended neck veins
B. Red discoloration of the urine
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Elevated BUN and dry, flaky skin

1059. A client has developed diabetes insipidous after removal of a pituitary tumor. Which finding would the nurse expect?
A. Polyuria
B. Hypertension
C. Polyphagia
D. Hyperkalemia

1060. A client with cancer received platelet infusions 24 hours ago. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate the most therapeutic effect from the transfusions?
A. Hemoglobin level increase from 8.9 to 10.6mg/dL
B. Temperature reading of 99.4°F
C. White blood cell count of 11,000/mm3
D. Decrease in oozing of blood from IV site

1061. A client is admitted with Parkinson’s disease who has been taking Carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for one year. Which clinical manifestation would be most important to report?
A. Dry mouth
B. Spasmodic eye winking
C. Dark urine color
D. Complaints of dizziness

1062. The nurse who is caring for a client with cancer notes a WBC of 500/mm3 on the laboratory results. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in the client’s plan of care?
A. Assess temperature every four hours because of risk for hypothermia.
B. Instruct the client to avoid large crowds and people who are sick.
C. Instruct in the use of a soft toothbrush.
D. Assess for signs of bleeding.

1063. A client with Crohn’s disease requires TPN to provide adequate nutrition. The nurse finds the TPN bag empty. What fluid would the nurse select to hang until another bag is prepared in the pharmacy?
A. Lactated Ringers
B. Normal saline
C. D10W solution
D. Normosol R

1064. The nurse is caring for a client with possible cervical cancer. What clinical data would the nurse most likely find in the client’s history?
A. Post-coital vaginal bleeding
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
D. Elevated temperature levels

1065. The nurse is preparing to receive a client from admitting with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find on the laboratory and patient history sections of the chart?

Select all that apply.
I. Low blood pressure
II. Hyperactivity
III. Hyperkalemia
IV. Hyperuricemia
V. Mental changes
A. I, IV and V
B. II, IV and V
C. III, IV, and V
D. All of the Above

1066. A client is scheduled to undergo a bone marrow aspiration from the sternum. What position would the nurse assist the client into for this procedure?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Supine
C. High Fowler’s
D. Lithotomy

1067. The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has increased ICP. The physician plans to reduce the cerebral edema by constricting cerebral blood vessels. Which physician order would serve this purpose?
A. Hyperventilation per mechanical ventilation
B. Insertion of a ventricular shunt
C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Solu medrol

1068. A client with a T6 injury six months ago develops facial flushing and a BP of 210/106. After elevating the head of the bed, which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Notify the physician.
B. Assess the client for a distended bladder.
C. Apply ordered oxygen via nasal cannula.
D. Increase the IV fluids.

1069. The nurse is performing an admission history for a client recovering from a stroke. Medication history reveals the drug clopidogrel (Plavix). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to an adverse effect of this drug?
A. Epistaxis
B. Hypothermia
C. Nausea
D. Hyperactivity

1070. The nurse caring for a client with a head injury would recognize which assessment finding as the most indicative of increased ICP?
A. Vomiting
B. Headache
C. Dizziness
D. Papilledema

1071. A client with angina is experiencing migraine headaches. The physician has prescribed Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex). Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Call the physician to question the prescription order.
B. Try to obtain samples for the client to take home.
C. Perform discharge teaching regarding this drug.
D. Consult social services for financial assistance with obtaining the drug.

1072. A client with COPD is in respiratory failure. Which of the following results would be the most sensitive indicator that the client requires a mechanical ventilator?
A. PCO2 58
B. SaO2 90
C. PH 7.23
D. HCO3 30

1073. The nurse in the emergency room is caring for a client with multiple rib fractures and a pulmonary contusion. Assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 38, a heart rate of 136, and restlessness. Which associated assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
A. Occasional small amounts of hemoptysis
B. Midline trachea with wheezing on auscultation
C. Subcutaneous air and absent breath sounds
D. Pain when breathing deeply, with rales in the upper lobes

1074. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who is having trouble breathing. The nurse would encourage which of the following positions for maximal lung expansion?
A. Supine with no pillow, to maintain patent airway
B. Side-lying with back support
C. Prone with head turned to one side
D. Sitting or in high Fowler’s

1075. The nurse is caring for clients on a respiratory unit. Upon receiving the following client reports, which client should be seen first?
A. Client with emphysema expecting discharge
B. Bronchitis client receiving IV antibiotics
C. Bronchitis client with edema and neck vein distention
D. COPD client with abnormal PO2

1076. A client has sustained a severe head injury and damaged the pre-occipital lobe. The nurse should remain particularly alert for which of the following problems?
A. Visual impairment
B. Swallowing difficulty
C. Impaired judgment
D. Hearing impairment

1077. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is to receive phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) 100mg IV push. The client has an IV of D51/2NS infusing at 100mL/hr. When administering the Dilantin, which is the appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Obtain an ambu bag and put it at bedside.
B. Insert a 16g IV catheter.
C. Flush the IV line with normal saline.
D. Premedicate with promethiazine (phenergan) IV push.

1078. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Osmitrol (Mannitol) and Furosemide (Lasix). The nurse recognizes that these two drugs are given to reverse which effect?
A. Energy failure
B. Excessive intracellular calcium
C. Cellular edema
D. Excessive glutamate release

1079. The nurse is assessing a client upon arrival to the emergency department. Partial airway obstruction is suspected. Which clinical manifestation is a late sign of airway obstruction?
A. Rales in lungs
B. Restless behavior
C. Cyanotic ear lobes
D. Inspiratory stridor

1080. The nurse is working in the trauma unit of the emergency room when a 24-year-old female is admitted after an MVA. The client is bleeding profusely and a blood transfusion is ordered. Which would the nurse be prepared to administer without a type and crossmatch?
A. AB positive
B. AB negative
C. O positive
D. O negative

1081. When preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging, the nurse should implement which of the following?
A. Obtain informed consent and administer atropine 0.4mg.
B. Scrub the injection site for 15 minutes.
C. Remove any jewelry and inquire about metal implants.
D. Administer Benadryl 50mg/mL IV.

1082. Upon admission to the hospital, a client reports having “the worst headache I’ve ever had.” The nurse should give the highest priority to which action?
A. Administering pain medication
B. Starting oxygen
C. Performing neuro checks
D. Inserting a Foley catheter

1083. A client has an order to administer cisplatin (Platinol). Which drug would the nurse expect to be ordered to reduce renal toxicity from the cisplatin infusion?
A. Amifostine (Ethyol)
B. Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)
C. Mesna (Mesenex)
D. Pamidronate (Aredia)

1084. The client is admitted to the ER with multiple rib fractures on the right. The nurse’s assessment reveals that an area over the right clavicle is puffy and that there is a “crackling” noise with palpation. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following problems?
A. Flail chest
B. Subcutaneous emphysema
C. Infiltrated subclavian IV
D. Pneumothorax

1085. A client has an order for Demerol 75mg and atropine 0.4mg IM as a preoperative medication. The Demerol vial contains 50mg/mL, and atropine is available 0.4mg/mL. How much medication will the nurse administer in total?
A. 1.0mL
B. 1.7mL
C. 2.5mL
D. 3.0 mL

1086. Nimodipine (Nimotop) is ordered for the client with a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. What does the nurse recognize as a desired effect of this drug?
A. Prevent the influx of calcium into cells.
B. Restore a normal blood pressure reading.
C. Prevent the inflammatory process.
D. Dissolve the clot that has formed.

1087. A client is admitted to the hospital with seizures. The client has jerking of the right arm and twitching of the face, but is alert and aware of the seizure. This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?
A. Absence
B. Complex partial
C. Simple partial
D. Tonic-clonic

1088. The intensive care unit is full and the emergency room just called in a report on a ventilator-dependent client who is being admitted to the medical surgical unit. It would be essential that the nurse have which piece of equipment at the client’s bedside?
A. Cardiac monitor
B. Intravenous controller
C. Manual resuscitator
D. Oxygen by nasal cannula

1089. The nurse is caring for a client on a ventilator that is set on intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV). Assessment on the ventilator is IMV mode of eight breaths per minute. The nurse assesses the client’s respiratory rate of 13 per minute. What do these findings indicate?
A. The client is “fighting” the ventilator and needs medication.
B. Pressure support ventilation is being used.
C. Additional breaths are being delivered by the ventilator.
D. The client is breathing five additional breaths on his own.

1090. The nurse has given instructions on pursed-lip breathing to a client with COPD. Which statement by the client would indicate effective teaching?
A. “I should inhale through my mouth very deeply.”
B. “I should tighten my abdominal muscles with inhalation.”
C. “I should contract my abdominal muscles with exhalation.”
D. “I should make inhalation twice as long as exhalation.”

1091. A client is receiving aminophylline IV. The nurse monitors the theophylline blood level and assesses that the level is within therapeutic range at which of the following levels?
A. 5ug/mL
B. 8ug/mL
C. 15ug/mL
D. 25ug/mL

1092. The nurse is assessing the arterial blood gases (ABG) of a chest trauma client with the results of pH 7.35, PO2 85, PCO2 55, and HCO3 27. What do these values indicate?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Compensated metabolic acidosis

1093. A pneumonectomy is performed on a client with lung cancer. Which of the following would probably be omitted from the client’s plan of care?
A. Closed chest drainage
B. Pain-control measures
C. Supplemental oxygen administration
D. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

1094. When planning the care for a client after a posterior fossa (infratentorial) craniotomy, which action is contraindicated?
A. Keeping the client flat on one side
B. Elevating the head of the bed 30°
C. Log-rolling or turning as a unit
D. Keeping the neck in a neutral position

1095. The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with ulcerative colitis who has been placed on a low-residue diet. Which food would need to be eliminated from this client’s diet?
A. Roasted chicken
B. Noodles
C. Cooked broccoli
D. Roast beef

1096. The nurse is assisting a client with diverticulitis to select appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided?
A. Bran
B. Fresh peach
C. Tomatoes
D. Dinner roll

1097. A client is admitted with a possible bowel obstruction. Which question during the nursing history is least helpful in obtaining information regarding this diagnosis?
A. “Tell me about your pain.”
B. “What does your vomit look like?”
C. “Describe your usual diet.”
D. “Have you noticed an increase in abdominal size?”

1098. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?
A. BUN 10mg/dL
B. Hemoglobin 13.0gm/dL
C. WBC 4,000/mm3
D. Platelets 200,000/mm3

1099. A client is admitted with a tumor in the parietal lobe. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor’s location?
A. Hemiplegia
B. Aphasia
C. Paresthesia
D. Nausea

1100. A client weighing 150 pounds has received burns over 50% of his body at 1200 hours. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the expected amount of fluid that the client should receive by 2000 hours.
A. 3,400
B. 6,800
C. 10,200
D. 13,600