Questions Set 1
1. In malignant hypertension the patient often die from …..
A. progressive release of catecholimine
B. progressive renal damage
C. progressive obstruction of vessels
D. progressive effects of intake of antibiotics
2. Left ventricular failure (left sided heart failure) is best treated with……
A. intravenous injection of digitalis and antibiotics
B. intravenous injection of digitalis alone
C. intravenous injection of morphine, aminopylline and frusemide
D. intravenous injection of aminophylline and frusemide
3. The complications of obesity include the following except ……………
A. depression
B. osteoarthritis
C. decreased libido
D. atherosclerosis
4. In providing nursing care for a client diagnosed of diabetes mellitus, the patient said
he enjoys eating pastries. The nurse’s response should be ….
A. “take pastries in moderation”
B. “you should eat pastries freely”
C. “you must avoid eating pastries”
D. “consult your counselor before your take pastries” …….
5. Peptic ulcer may be classified according to the following organs except ………
A. duodenal
B. gastric
C. oesophageal
D. ileal
6. The basic factors that may cause peptic ulcer do NOT include one of the following: …..
A. excessive secretion of gastric acid
B. inadequate protection of the lining of stomach and duodenum against digestion by a base and pepsin
C. helicobacter pylori infection
D. drug eg. NSAID’S
7. In duodenal ulcer, the pain may wake the patient up in the ……
A. middle of the night
B. early morning
C. late in the night
D. late in the afternoon
8. Which of the following agents is described as H2 – Receptor antagonist?
A. omeprazole
B. sulphathalarole
C. ranitidine
D. amoxicillin
9. Which of the following agents is described as proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?
A. omeprazole
B. sulphathalazole
C. ranitidine
D. amoxicillin
10. The majority of duodenal and gastric ulcers not associated with NSAID’s are caused by the following except.................
A. H2 – receptor antagonist
B. H. pylori
C. H. influenzae
D. Proton pump inhibitor
11. Non –pharmacological treatment of peptic ulcer include the following except ………
A. Cessation of smoking
B. Avoid foods that aggravate the pain
C. Relief of anxiety and stress
D. Promote healing of the ulcer
12. Which of the following does NOT cause gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. NSAID’s
B. hiatus hernia
C. pregnancy
D. obesity
13. An enlarged, displaced anal vascular cushions are described as ………
A. anal thrombosis
B. redundant fissures
C. haemorrhoids
D. prolapsed rectum
14. Which of the following conditions can lead to bleeding disorders?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. congestive heart failure
C. pregnancy
D. liver disease
15. In diabetes mellitus, the priority of the nurse is to correct …………………..
A. fluid balance
B. knowledge deficit
C. altered nutrition
D. ineffective family coping
16. Angina pain that is unstable and occurs at rest and often at the same time is ……………
A. stable angina
B. variant angina
C. unstable angina
D. prinzmetal angina
17. Which of the following will not be prescribed for a patient diagnosed of Maniere’s disease?
A. increase fluid intake
B. low sodium diet
C. vasodilating medication
D. mild sedative
18. In acute phase of Diabetic Ketoacidosis the priority nursing action is to ……………..
A. administer intravenous Regular insulin
B. administer intravenous 5% Dextrose
C. correct alkalosis
D. apply an ECG monitor
19. Taking a history of a client with right ventricular heart failure the nurse would expect the client to
complain of:
A. Dyspnoea, oedema, fatigue
B. Fatigue, vertigo, headache
C. Weakness, palpitations, nausea
D. A feeling of distress
20. The pleural space, lungs and heart are filled with air under pressure in:
A. spontaneous pneumothorax
B. tension pneumothorax
C. open pneumothorax
D. idiopathic pneumothorax.
21. The nurse is transfusing red blood cells to a client who begins to develop shortness of breath, rales respiration and hypertension. The nurse should document that the client is experiencing the signs of:
A. a transfusion reaction
B. anaphylactic shock
C. fluid overload
D. sepsis.
22. The client is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia and is in protective isolation. His wife comes to visit. She asks the nurse if she has to put on a mask before visiting him. The nurse should recommend that the woman:
A. put the mask on before entering the room
B. speaks to her husband from the doorway but not enter the room even with a mask.
C. Does not put on the mask if she is not comfortable.
D. Put on a mask and change it frequently while in the room.
23. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity is known as:
A. pneumothorax
B. emphysema
C. empyema
D. pulmonary embolism
24. The mother of a four-year old child with leukemia was admitted to the warD. Which of the following responses would indicate to the nurse that the client’s mother understands the prognosis?
A. “She’s lost so much weight”
B. “I want to transfer her to another hospital”
C. “When does the next course of chemotherapy begin?”
D. “Will hospice help us care for her?”
25. A low-protein diet has been prescribed for a client. Which of these foods, if selected by the client, indicates to the nurse his/her understanding of the diet?
A. Eggs, toasts and hot chocolate
B. Refined beans, corn and cola
C. Apple sauce, potato and orange juice
D. Few slices of baked chicken, chicken chick pens and milk.
26. Fresh frozen plasma is normally transfused to patients with:
A. Haemophilia
B. Sickle cell crisis.
C. G6PD
D. Leukopenia
27. The nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following symptoms can the nurse expect to find?
A. coldness in the calf
B. decreased body temperature
C. extremity heaviness
D. Anorexia
28. The common causes of hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus are present if the patient..............
A. takes in more food than necessary
B. does not tolerate the prescribed drugs
C. takes overdose of antidiabetic drugs
D. takes more fruit drinks.
29. In bronchiectasis, the destruction of the lung tissue often occurs at the.........................
A. bifurcation of the bronchi
B. lower dependent segment
C. hilum of the lungs
D. visceral pleural covering of the lungs
30. A male client is receiving antihypertensive drugs. Which of these potential side effects would be most important for the nurse to discuss with him?
A. nasal stiffness
B. impotence
C. nausea and vomiting
D. postural hypotension
31. A Client admitted with pulmonary oedema was put on digoxin 0.25mg daily, Furosemide 40mg daily and nasal oxygen therapy at 2 liters/minute. To evaluate the effectiveness of digoxin, the nurse should observe for..............................................
A. increased urine output
B. increased pulse rate
C. lowered blood pressure
D. decreased respiratory rate
32. A client is told that a tuberculin test is positive. Which statement would indicate that the client understands the test results?
A. “I have had previous exposure to tuberculosis”
A. “I have immunity and cannot develop the disease”
B. “I currently have active tuberculosis”
C. “I have a reactivation of a healed primary lesion”
33. A nurse planning to care for a client with human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) should understand that the most important principle to decrease the risk of spreading the infection is .....................................
A. to know the HIV status of every client in the unit
B. ensure enough distance away from the patient when providing care
C. to know how and when to use personal protective equipment supplied
D. to determine whether the client has been placed in protective isolation
34. A patient with CHF is given Lasix (frusemide), the nurse must monitor which of the following laboratory values to identify any side effects?
A. glucose
B. sodium
C. potassium
D. magnesium
35. Cells susceptible to HIV include one of the following:.............
A. giant cells + CD4
B. microphages only
C. T lymphocytes + CD4
D. buccal epithelium and astrocytes alone
36. On the 3rd day after laparotomy a patient complains of severe pains in the right calf muscle. The nurse should first
A. Apply hot fermentation to the part
B. Elevate the leg above the heart
C. Notify the surgeon
D. Record the symptom son the nurse’s notes
37. Gilbert, 12 years old boy had incision and drainage for injection abscess of the gluteal muscle. Which position would be appropriate after surgery?
A. Dorsal
B. Prone
C. Recumbent
D. Lateral
38. A patient with furunculosis is warned not to pierce any lesion. Doing so could
A. Cause bleeding
B. Promote drainage
C. Prevent healing
D. Spread the infection
39. Which of the following would you tell your patient with varicose veins to do to promote comfort and minimize worsening condition? Tell patient to
A. Avoid wearing constrictive clothing
B. Avoid elevating her legs above heart level
C. Avoid putting on compression stockings before coming out of bed
D. Wear constrictive clothing
40. Which of these nursing diagnostic statement will be most appropriate for a 16 your old girl with inflammation of to the breast?
A. Impaired skin integrity related to cracks
B. Ineffective breastfeeding related to inflammation of breast tissue
C. Nausea related inflammation of breast tissue
D. Pain related to inflammation of breast tissue
Questions Set 2
1. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:
A. Elevating the legs when in bed.
B. Putting the patient in supine position
C. Serving a seasoned beef to him
D. Using bedside commode for stools
2. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:
A. suction of the patient vigorously
B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. give all the prescribed medications
D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance
3. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:
A. Protein pumps
B. capillary wall
C. ionic gates
D. fatty substances
4. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?
A. pancytopenia anaemia
B. haemorrhagic anaemia
C. Addison’s pernicious anemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
5. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:
A. blood vessels
B. interstitial space
C. spinal cord
D. cytoplasm
6. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?
A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses
B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses
C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses
D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses
7. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Raynauld’s disease
D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome
8. Vitamins are needed -----------. to sustain growth and health
A. periodically in smaller quantities
B. daily in smaller quantities
C. annually in greater quantities
D. periodically in greater quantities
9. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?
A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss
B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract
C. endocrine changes in the body
D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet
10. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?
A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration
B. pericardial friction rub
C. anterior chest pain
D. weakness and irritability
11. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffersing from Raynaud’s disease?
A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate
B. ingestion of an offal
C. ingestion of cereals and pulses
D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables
12. Potassium excess can result in:
A. tongue fissure
B. muscle cramps
C. sunken eyes
D. increased sweating
13. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.
A. pethidine
B. coumadin
C. heparin
D. morphine
14. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water
15. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. alteration in comfort (pain)
B. anxiety
C. ineffective coping
D. impaired tissue integrity
16. An agent of a disease is referred to:
A. the affected person
B. the causative organism
C. the method of spread of the disease
D. the environmental condition
17. The major function of sodium in the body is to:
A. promote wound healing
B. to form ATP
C. balance body fluid
D. process extracellular fluid
18. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:
A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar
B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt
C. 1000mls of wholesome water
D. a clean container and its cover
19. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:
A. chloride
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. potassium
20. A positively charged ion in the body is called:
A. cation
B. anion
C. buffer
D. hydrolysis
21. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:
A. hydrolysis
B. buffer
C. anion
D. cation
22. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin B1
23. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:
A. rice and grilled chicken
B. fruits, vegetables and baked fish
C. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice
D. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken
24. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of beD.
The nurse must first:
A. get an order for pain medication
B. report the complaint to the physician
C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed
D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed
25. A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority of the nursing
care is to:
A. assemble oxygen apparatus at the bedside
B. put in place a bed table
C. make ECG machine ready
D. put the client on a low bed
26. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from
myocardial infarction?
A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting
B. the client complains of pain while walking
C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm
27. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of......................................
A. pellagra
B. rickets
C. osteomyelitis
D. mumps
28. Guinea worm disease is described as.............................................
A. air borne only
B. vector borne
C. food borne
D. air and vector borne
29. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is.........................................
A. leukocyte antigen
B. immunofluorescent assay
C. direct fluorescent antibody test
D. immunofluorescence skin test
30. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?
A. recent upper respiratory infection
B. nutritional anaemia
C. peptic ulcer disease
D. atrial fibrillation
31. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse expects to
note which of the following?
A. Cardizem
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Metronidazole
32. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness
of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms
of ……………..
A. myocardial infarction
B. pneumonia
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary oedema
33. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommendeD. What is
sclerotherapy?
A. surgical removal of the varicosity
B. tying off veins
C. oral intake of anticoagulant
D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off
34. A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from ---------------
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. Buerger’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Paget’s disease
35. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the --------------------------
A. adrenalins
B. pyloric sphincter
C. parotid gland
D. thymus gland
36. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should avoid
which of the following in the procedure?
A. pulling the auricle backward and upward
B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal
C. warming the solution to room temperature
D. placing the client in the sitting-up position
37. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....................................
A. pelvic pain
B. urethral discharge
C. increased temperature
D. dysuria
38. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?
A. bed rest
B. mastoidectomy
C. dyphenhydramine
D. myringotomy
39. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client -----
A. about current drugs
B. to avoid tobacco
C. about safety measures
D. about self-care measures
40. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from
mastoiditis?
A. swelling behind the ear
B. a clear tympanic membrane
C. a mobile tympanic membrane
D. a transparent tympanic membrane
41. Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in the.............
A. respiratory and nervous systems
B. nervous and endocrine systems
C. digestive and nervous systems
D. digestive and endocrine systems
42. Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?
A. a colony of black dots in the ear drum
B. dense white patches on the ear drum
C. a red, bulging eardrum
D. a round darkened area on the eardrum
43. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid --------------------
A. cereal products
B. salty foods
C. citrus foods
D. green vegetables
44. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should
A. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
B. use sign language
C. speak loudly
D. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking
45. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and --.
A. water
B. saliva
C. air
D. droplet nuclei
46. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following
approaches?
A. speak frequently
B. speak loudly
C. speak directly into the unaffected ear
D. speak in a normal tone
47. A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be
an insect?
A. irrigate the ear
B. instill diluted alcohol
C. instill antibiotic ear drop
D. instill corticorsteroid ointment
48. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as ------------------
A. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging
B. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging
C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging
D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging
49. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is ------------------
A. Low cholesterol diet
B. Low sodium diet
C. Low carbohydrate diet
D. Low fat diet
50. Cranial nerve I is also called -----------------------------------------
A. Olfactory nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Trochlear nerve
D. Facial nerve
51. Maniere’s disease is a disorder of the -------------------------------------------
A. external ear
B. tympanic membrane
C. middle ear
D. inner ear
52. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?
A. ringing in the ears
B. blurred vision
C. headache
D. vertigo
53. A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to --….
A. increase fluid intake to 3L a day
B. avoid sudden head movements
C. lie still in bed and watch television
D. decrease sodium intake
54. Oculomotor nerve is also called -------------------------------
A. cranial nerve I
B. cranial nerve IV
C. cranial nerve III
D. cranial nerve VII
55. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of ---------------------
A. hearing loss
B. pruitus
C. tinnitus
D. burning in the ear
56. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when ----------------------------------------
A. the pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
B. the lens of the eye becomes opaque
C. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures
D. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced
57. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to ----------------------
A. use eye drops
B. use rigid contact lenses
C. use corrective lenses
D. undergo keratoplasty
58. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse
include in the plan of care?
A. out of bed to ambulate with assistance
B. place an eye patch over the affected eye
C. maintain high-Fowler’s position
D. restrict visitors
59. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to --------------------
A. focus on a distant object
B. close one eye and read letters on a chart
C. raise one finger when the sound is heard
D. focus on a close object
60. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and
petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional
bruises?
A. brushing the teeth only once per day
B. trimming his nails short
C. handling him well with the palms of the hand
D. gripping him in an arm chair
61. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because --------
A. infection kills instantly
B. infection can cause sickling
C. infection causes clubbing of the fingers
D. infection causes further blood loss
62. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of ----------------------
A. factor IV only
B. factor IV and factor VIII
C. factor VIII and IX
D. factor VIII and factor IV
63. Immature red blood cells are called ------------------------------------------------------
A. megakaryocytes
B. haemoglobins
C. reticulocytes
D. monocytes
64. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have -------------
A. more haemoglobin S
B. less haemoglobin S
C. greater life span
D. lesser life span
65. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the least is documented as 20/60. The
nurse interprets this as
A. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
B. The client is legally blind
C. The client ;s vision is normal
D. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.
66. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract
Surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
A. An osmotic diuretic
-+ B. A miotic agent
C. A mydriatic medication
D. A thisazide diuretic
‘’’’
67. A myotic agent would always
A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diereses
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
68. A mydriatic agent would always
A. Assist the sight of the client
B. Assist to overcome
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil
69. A client is diagnosed with glaucomA. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?
A. A history of migraine headaches
B. Frequent urinary tract infection
C. A cardio vascular disease
D. Frequent upper respiratory infection
70. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:
A. Eat before instilling the drops
B. Swallow several times after instilling the drops.
C. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops.
D. occlude the nasolacriminal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops
71. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with
Peptic ulcer
A. History of tarry black stools
B. History of alcohol abuse
c History of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals
d History of the use of acetaminophen
72. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Striping
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg
73. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?
A. Supine
B. Fowler’s
C. Sim’s
D. Tredelenburg
74. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?
A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine
B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine
C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine
D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine
75. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:
A. monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values
B. bathing with tepid water
C. assisting with meals
D. weighing and recording a weight daily
76. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?
A. Blurred vision or diplopic
B. Urinary frequency or urgency
C. Confusion or drowsiness
D. Diarrhoea or constipation
77. A nurse should include which of the following non pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer.
A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis
B. Smoke only at bedtime
C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques
D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief.
78. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to
A. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility.
B. Eat at least six small meals per day
C. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain.
D. Consume a bland diet only
79. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor?
A. Vitamin B12 injections
B. Vitamin B3 injections
C. Vitamin B6 injections
D. Antacid use
80. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemiC. What caused the anaemia?
A. Decreased intake of dietary iron
B. Blood loss
C. Intestinal malabsorption
D. Lack of appetite.
81. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?
A. Decreased dietary intake of iron
B. Hemi-gastrectomy
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Reduced level of thyroxine
82. Pernicious anaemia is associated with
A. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12
B. Decreased consumption of iron
C. Excessive consumption of iron
D. Excessive loss of gastric juices
83. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:
A. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.
B. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test
C. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.
D. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.
84. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing ………………..
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respirations
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
85. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for ……….
A. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative
b 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
C. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative
D. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.
86. A Mantoux test that results positive has indurations greater than …….
A. 10mm
B. 5mm
C. 3mm
D. 7mm
87. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux’s skin test with an area of induration of about
……………….
A. 7mm
B. 5mm
C. 10mm
D. 3mm
88. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 2000mg PO may present with which of the
following as severe effects.
A. Bacteraemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Neutropenia
D. Natraemia
89. A common reaction from taking zovirax (acyclovir) is
A. Elevation in WBCs
B. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen
C. Elevation in platelet count
D. Elevation in hemoglobin
90. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following
Findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals
91. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?
A. cloudy synovial fluid
B. presence of organisms
C. bloody synovial fluid
D. presence of urate crystals
92. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Two haeinoglobin s genes
B. Ascites
C. Emboli
D. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose
93. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?
A. Raised level of genes
B. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin
C. Two haemoglobin s genes
D. A single haemoglobin s genes
94. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive
status?
A. A CD4 cell count
B. A Western blot
C. A bone marrow biopsy
D. A third ELISA test
95. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection
A. cough
B. dyspnoea on exertion
C. dyspnoea at rest
D. fever
96. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present
A. oral lesions
B. purplish skin lesions
C. chronic cough
D. no signs and symptoms
97. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
A. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk
B. erythromatous nodosa
C. dyspnoea on slight exertion
D. numerous boils on the body
98. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must ….
A. A void diary products and red meat
B. Plan large, nutritious meals
C. Add spices to food for added flavour
D. Serve foods while they are very warm.
99. In herpes zooster, the common feature is …..
A. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales
B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.
D. Presence of tiny red resides.
100. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents…………………………
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.
C. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis.
D. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus
0 Comments