1. Excessive frequency of menstruation
A. Amenorrhoea
B. Dysmenorrhoea
C. Oligomenorrhoea
D. Polymenorrhoea
2. The beginning of the first menstrual cycle during puberty in human
females
A. Adrenarche
B. Menarche
C. Puberty
D. Thelarche
3. The beginning of breast development
A. Menarche
B. Adrenarche
C. Thelarche
D. Puberty
4. Excessive volume of menstruation
A. Menorrhoea
B. Amenorrhoea
C. Polymenorrhoea
D. Oligomenorrhoea
5. The proliferative phase occurs at
A. Days 4-8
B. Days 14-28
C. Days 8-14
D. Days 5-13
6. The device of choice when taking a cervical smear
A. Simon’s speculum
B. Retro speculum
C. Cusco’s speculum
D. Sim’s speculum
7. An entrance into a hollow organ or cavity
A. Ntrodus
B. Extrodus
C. Introitus
D. Entroitus
8. The involuntary passing of urine
A. Nocturia
B. Urge incontinence
C. Enuresis
D. Dysuria
9. Allows better inspection of the vaginal walls and some prolapses
A. Cusco’s speculum
B. Sim’s speculum
C. Simon’s speculum
D. Retro speculum
10. The passage of urine at night. In the absence of a high fluid intake
A. Dysuria
B. Enuresis
C. Haematuria
D. Nocturia
11. Gravida refers to which of the following descriptions?
A. A serious pregnancy
B. Number of times a female has been pregnant
C. Number of children a female has had
D. Number of term pregnancies a females has had
12. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum
during the menstrual cycle is?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
D. Luteneizing hormone (LH)
13. A nurse is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of
pregnancy regarding measures to assist in reducing breast
tenderness. The nurse tells the client to:
A. Avoid wearing bra
B. Wash the nipples and areola area daily with soap, and
massage the breast with lotion
C. Wear tight-fitting blouses or dresses to provide support
D. Wash the breast with warm water and keep them dry
14. Nurse Felicia is caring for a pregnant client with Pre-eclampsia.
The nurse prepares a plan of care for the client and documents in
the plan that if the client progresses from Pre-eclampsia to
eclampsia the nurse’s first action is to:
A. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously
B. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate
C. Maintain an open airway
D. Administer oxygen by face mask
15. Nurse Gina is caring for a client in labour who is receiving Pitocin
by IV infusion to stimulate uterine contractions. Which
assessment finding would indicate to the nurse that the infusion
needs to be discontinued?
A. Three contractions occurring within a 10-minute period
B. A fetal heart rate of 90 beats per minute
C. Adequate resting tone of the uterus palpated between
contractions
D. Increased urinary output
16. After the procedure of circumcision the student midwife was
confused and asked which part was removed. Which of the
following is the most appropriate response?
A. Ejaculatory duct
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Prepuce
D. Vas deferens
17. A client with group AB blood whose husband has group O has just
given birth. The major sign of ABO blood incompatibility in the
neonate is which complication or test result?
A. Negative coombs test
B. Bleeding from the nose and ear
C. Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life
D. Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life
18. The midwife explained that a laboring woman may not have
difficulty in delivery because her type of pelvis will help the fetus
adopt direct occipito anterior or direct posterior position. Which
of the following is true?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Platypelloid
23. In the second stage of labour, expulsion of the foetus from birth
canal depends on which important factor?
A. Maternal bearing down
B. Cervical dilatation
C. Uterine contractions
D. Adequate pelvic size
24. The normal range for the foetal heart rate in beats per minute is?
A. 120-160
B. 130-150
C. 100-160
D. 120-180
25. The ovarian cycle is under the influence of
A. The Endometrium
B. The cerebral cortex
C. The anterior pituitary gland
D. The posterior pituitary gland
26. Miss Nachinab is found of eating highly polished cereals, she is
likely to develop which of these conditions?
A. Goiter
B. Scurvy
C. Beriberi
D. Kwashiorkor
27. A child with a mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) of <11.5cm
has
A. Severe acute malnutrition
B. Moderate acute malnutrition
C. Underweight
D. Overweight
28. Which of the following is NOT a cause of secondary
amenorrhoea?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Hyperprolactinaemia
C. Delayed puberty
D. Premature menopause
29. FSH levels peak at around
A. Day 5
B. Day 18
C. Day 28
D. Day 13
30. The presence of fragments of endometrial tissue at sites in the
pelvis outside the uterus or, rarely, throughout the body
A. Dyspareunia
B. Adenomyosis
C. PID
D. Endometriosis
31. When fragments of endometrial tissue infiltrate the wall of the
uterus
A. Endometriosis
B. PID
C. Adenomyosis
D. Dyspareunia
32. The commonest congenital cause of amenorrhoea
A. Hyperprolactinaemia
B. Hypothalamic gonadism
C. Physiological amenorrhoea
D. Turner’s syndrome
33. In The filtration of urine, the substance are selected according to
the body’s needs
A. Bacteria
B. Blood cells
C. Glucose
D. Minerals
34. Which of the under listed statements predisposes a preterm baby
to unstable body temperature?
A. Immaturity of the hypothalamus
B. Immaturity of the lung tissues
C. Low birth weight
D. Sufficient subcutaneous fat
35. A Student wanted to understand where the breast milk comes
from and in explaining this, which of the following is the
appropriate answer?
A. Acini cells
B. Ampulla
C. Lactiferous duct
D. Lactiferous tubule
36. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first prenatal
assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day of her last
menstrual period was September 19th, 2013. Using Naegele’s rule,
the nurse determines the estimated date of confinement as:
A. July 26, 2013
B. June 12, 2014
C. June 26, 2014
D. July 12, 2014
37. Ovulation occurs at around
A. Day 13
B. Day 28
C. Day 5
D. Day 18
38. Oestrogen levels peak at around
A. Days 8-14
B. Days 18
C. Days 28
D. Days 28
39. The luteal/secretory phase occurs at
A. Days 8-14
B. Days 1-4
C. Days 5-13
D. Days 14-28
40. Surgical removal of one or more fibroids from the uterus
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Myomectomy
C. Cervical sweep
D. Hysterectomy
41. When menstruation occurs less frequently than every 35 days
A. Polymenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Oligomenorrhea
42. Premature babies
A. Almost always need special formula as the amount of
protein in breast milk is too small
B. Should be given cow’s milk
C. Should be given to another woman to breastfeed
D. Usually do well on exclusive breastfeeding
43. What action should be taken to ensure proper feeding of the
child?
A. Ask mother to visit the clinic daily for growth monitoring
B. Ask mother to come and feed the child at the clinic
C. Play with child to make him happy
D. Visit mother and supervise the feeding in the home
44. The following are criteria for Lactational Amenorrhea Method
(LAM) EXCEPT
A. Exclusive breasting is regular
B. Infant must be 6 months
C. Menstruation must not have returned
D. Monitor must fully breastfeed and on demand
45. The step to successful breastfeeding include:
I. Encourage breastfeeding
II. Establish baby friendly hospital initiative
III. Foster the establishment of breastfeeding support
group
IV. Practice rooming-in
V. Promote scheduled feeding
A. II, II and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. III, IV and V only
46. Upon completion of a vaginal examination on a laboring woman,
the nurse records: 50%, 6cm, -1. Which of the following is correct
interpretation of the data?
A. Fetal presentation part is 1cm above the ischial spines
B. Effacement is 4cm from completion
C. Dilatation is 50% completed
D. Fetus has achieved passage through the ischial spines
47. Oforiwaa, 17 years old, is bleeding between periods of less than
two weeks. This condition is an abnormality in the menstrual cycle
known as:
A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Dysmenorrhea
48. A client arrives at the hospital in the second stage of labor. The
fetus head is crowning, the client is bearing down, and the birth
appears imminent. The nurse should:
A. Transfer her immediately by stretcher to the birthing unit
B. Tell her to breathe through her mouth and not to bear
down
C. Instruct the client to pant during contractions and to
breathe through her mouth
D. Support the perineum with the hands to prevent tearing
and tell the client to pant
49. Post mature infant presents a unique and characteristics
appearance which include the following EXCEPT:
A. Smooth skin
B. Thin body
C. Worried-looking
D. Long nails
51. LH levels peak at around
A. Day 1
B. Day 5
C. Day 18
D. Day13
52. Progesterone levels peaks at around
A. Day 13
B. Day 5
C. Day 18
D. Day 22
53. The growth of pubic hair
A. Puberty
B. Menarche
C. Adrenarche
D. Thelarche
54. An accumulation of menstrual blood in the uterus
A. Haematometra
B. Haemavesicus
C. Haemamyoma
D. Heamometrium
55. Painful menstruation
A. Amenorrhea
B. Polymenorrhea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Dysmenorrhea
56. A child should be taken to child welfare clinic once every......in the
first year of life
A. Two weeks
B. Four weeks
C. Six weeks
D. Eight weeks
57. The average weight of a normal baby is
A. 2kg to 2.5kg
B. 2.5kg to 3.5kg
C. 3kg to 3.5kg
D. 3.5kg to 4kg
58. The rooting reflex is where the baby(s)
A. Arms relaxes slowly after flying out
B. Flare open his/her toes when the planter is stroked
C. Makes some stepping movement held in the upright
position
D. Turns the head towards a touch on the cheek
59. When checking the weight of a baby
I. Ensure the scale is in good order
II. Get the weighing scale ready
III. If hanging scale, hang above eye level
IV. Weigh baby with the bonnet on
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
60. What advice would you give a woman who had taken Depo-
Provera injection?
A. She should massage the injection site quick result
B. She can have sexual intercourse with the partner on the
same day
C. The injection will protect her for four (4) months
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
61. A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm newborn
infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment signs
if noted in the newborn infant alert the nurse to the possibility of
this syndrome?
A. Hypotension and Bradycardia
B. Tachypnea and retractions
C. Acrocyanosis and grunting
D. The presence of a barrel chest with grunting
62. A nursing tutor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the
functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Kingsford
to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the
luteinizing hormone (LH). Kingsford accurately responds by stating
that:
A. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland
B. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary
C. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
D. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during
pregnancy
63. During the period of induction of labor, a client should be
observed carefully for signs of:
A. Severe pain
B. Uterine tetany
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Umbilical cord prolapse
64. In educating a group of men about their reproductive system,
which of the underlisted is FALSE?
A. It is normal for adolescent boys to have “wet dream”
B. Prostate enlargement can cause acute retention of urine
C. The male have both internal and external organs of
reproduction
D. Sperm production ceases after vasectomy
65. Menstruation occurs at
A. Days 1-4
B. Days 8-14
C. Days 5-13
D. Days 14-28
66. The menarche occurs on average at......years of age
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
67. The follicle from which the egg was released becomes the corpus
luteum
A. Days 8-14
B. Days 14-28
C. Days 5-13
D. Days 1-4
68. Inflammation of the endometrium due to acute or chronic
infection. It may be caused by foreign bodies, bacteria, viruses, or
parasites
A. Adenomyosis
B. Endometriosis externa
C. Endometritis
D. Intra-uteritis
69. The uterus communication with the fallopian tubes at the
A. Endos
B. Cornu
C. Fundus
D. Pouch of Douglas
70. Vasectomy is not immediately effective and the World Health
Organization (WHO) recommends that after the procedure, the
couple use an alternative method of contraception for
A. 48 hours
B. One week
C. One month
D. Three months
71. Which of the vaginal methods should be removed 6 hours after
intercourse to prevent infection?
A. Spermicidal
B. Diaphragm
C. Cervical cap
D. A and C only
E. B and C only
72. The process whereby the couples proceeds with intercourse and
the male withdraws the organ and discharges outside the vagina
is known as
A. Drawbacks method
B. Rhythm method
C. Withdrawal method
D. Dual protection
73. The use of pills within 48 hours of unprotected sex to prevent
pregnancy is known as
A. Dual protection
B. Emergency contraception
C. Withdrawal method
D. None of the above
74. Primary health care is made available to individuals in community
through their full participation and at an affordable cost. Full
participation here
A. Care made universally accessible to individual
B. Community members help to address health problems and
solutions
C. Healthcare make available to the local people
D. Provision of comprehensive range of services to community
members
75. During tubal surgery, the doctor explained to the student
midwives that three structures are very similar and arise from the
same area. What are these?
I. Ovarian ligament
II. Round ligament
III. Uterosacra ligament
IV. Uterine tube
A.I, II and III
B.I, II and IV
C.I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV
76. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to
administer the medication in which muscle site?
A. Deltoid
B. Triceps
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Biceps
77. Mrs. Boamah wanted to know the cause of her three days old
baby’s fits. Your explanation of the common causes will include:
I. Hypoglycemia
II. Hypocalcaemia
III. Intra-cranial haemorrhage
IV. Spinal injury
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
78. The capacity of the bladder of a non-pregnant woman is about?
A. 100 – 200mls
B. 300 – 600mls
C. 800 – 1000mls
D. 1200 – 1400mls
79. Malignant fibroids
A. Leiomyosarcomas
B. Mixed Mullerian tumours
C. Endometrial carcinomas
D. Leiomyomatas
80. The outside coat of the uterus
A. Endos
B. Cornu
C. Fundus
D. Serosa
81. The serous membrane that forms the lining of the abdominal
cavity
A. Perineum
B. Parametrium
C. Peritoneum
D. Perineum
82. In 80% of women the uterus is
A. Retroflexed
B. Straight
C. Retroverted
D. Anteverted
83. The IUD can be used as emergency contraception if inserted
within days of unprotected intercourse
A. 7
B. 9
C. 5
D. 11
89. Miss Abdul Rahaman brought her baby to the clinic and after
history taking, the following was noted: fair skin and hair,
vomiting, feeding difficulties, nasty smelling of urine and eczema.
The midwife explained to Miss Abdul Rahaman that her baby is
suffering from:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Galactosemia
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Thyrotoxicosis
90. Hamdu, a student nurse asked the midwife to repeat what she
said about where spermatogenesis takes place. Choose the
appropriate answer
A. Bulbo-urethral glands
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Semi-niferous tubules
D. Epididymis
91. The following statements are true of opththalmia neonatorum
EXCEPT
A. A common cause of blindness
B. Caused by gonococcal infection from the mother
C. Congenital infection
D. Treated with antibiotic
92. The nurse should realize that the most common and potential
harmful maternal complication of epidural anesthesia would be:
A. Severe postpartum headache
B. Limited perception of bladder fullness
C. Increase in respiratory rate
D. Hypotension
93. Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by which of
the following therapies?
A. Diet
B. NPH insulin (long-acting)
C. Oral hypoglycemic drugs
D. Oral hypoglycemic drugs and insulin
94. (CHPS) community based health planning strategy operates within
which of these levels of the district health system
A. The district Hospital
B. The health center
C. The sub-district
D. The community
95. Morning sickness can be relieved by
A. Avoiding intake of fluids
B. Brushing teeth early in the morning
C. Eating dry food before getting out of bed
D. Giving client infusion and medication
96. It is important to use visual aids when giving a health talk because
it
I. Arouses curiosity
II. Creates interest
III. Is easy to use
IV. Makes learning easy
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
97. When is emergency contraceptive most effective?
A. Within 12 hours of unprotected sex
B. Within 24 hours of unprotected sex
C. Within 36 hours of unprotected sex
D. Within 72 hours of unprotected sex
98. A child contracts measles and subsequently gains immunity. What
type of immunity does the child have?
A. Acquired artificial
B. Acquired natural
C. Passive artificial
D. Passive natural
99. The reasons for taking comprehensive history of a client during
FANC includes the following EXCEPT
A. To identify pre-existing conditions
B. To identify predisposing factors that may rise before, during
and after labor
C. To identify other risk factors related to pregnancy
D. To provide financial support for the client
100. Mr. and Mrs. Godwin arrived at the clinic for their first pre-natal
visit. Mr. Godwin tells the nurse the women in his family usually
have female babies and wonders why women always have female
babies. The nurse’s correct response is:
A. “The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm”
B. “Some women are just more fertile with females”
C. “Nature determines whether the baby will be a female or
male”
D. “The sex of the baby is determined by the egg”
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