Ultimate NCLEX Cram Sheet Practice Questions With Answers for Success

The NCLEX is the final hurdle every nursing student must conquer on the path to becoming a registered nurse. With so much material to review, it can feel overwhelming. That’s where this collection of practice MCQs comes in. These questions are designed to challenge your knowledge and reinforce key nursing concepts, helping you identify areas of strength and weakness before the big day. By practicing with these MCQs, you’ll build confidence and ensure you’re fully prepared for the types of questions that will appear on the exam. When exam time arrives, you'll be ready to tackle it head-on!

1. What is the primary purpose of the Tic-Tac-Toe Method in ABG interpretation?
Read more about it here: Tic-Tac-Toe Method
A. To memorize normal ABG values
B. To determine the type of acid-base imbalance
C. To calculate oxygen saturation levels
D. To assess lung compliance

2. In the Tic-Tac-Toe grid, which component is placed in the center square?
A. pH
B. CO₂
C. HCO₃
D. PaO₂

3. According to the Tic-Tac-Toe Method, if the pH is low and CO₂ is high, what is the likely diagnosis?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

4. In the Tic-Tac-Toe grid, which components are placed in the top left and bottom right squares?
A. pH and PaO₂
B. CO₂ and HCO₃
C. CO₂ and PaO₂
D. HCO₃ and PaO₂

5. What does the Tic-Tac-Toe Method help to determine in relation to ABGs?
A. Whether the acid-base imbalance is metabolic or respiratory
B. The patient's blood pressure
C. The level of oxygen saturation
D. The white blood cell count

6. In the Tic-Tac-Toe grid, if the pH is high (alkaline) and CO₂ is low, what would this indicate?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

7. When using the Tic-Tac-Toe Method, what is placed in the center of the grid?
A. pH
B. CO₂
C. HCO₃
D. PaO₂

8. In the Tic-Tac-Toe grid, if both pH and HCO₃ are low, which condition is likely?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

9. What is the significance of the Tic-Tac-Toe Method's grid layout in interpreting ABGs?
A. It visually highlights the relationship between pH, CO₂, and HCO₃ levels.
B. It simplifies the steps for measuring blood pressure.
C. It provides a direct comparison between WBC and RBC levels.
D. It is used to track glucose levels over time.

10. When interpreting ABGs using the Tic-Tac-Toe Method, which of the following correctly represents a metabolic acidosis scenario?
A. Low pH, low CO₂, low HCO₃
B. Low pH, high CO₂, low HCO₃
C. Low pH, low CO₂, high HCO₃
D. High pH, high CO₂, low HCO₃

11. What is the maximum time allotted for the NCLEX exam?
A. 4 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 7 hours

12. What is the minimum number of questions that can be answered on the NCLEX exam?
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150

13. Which of the following is a keyword to watch for when answering NCLEX questions?
A. Always
B. Never
C. None
D. Except

14. How many questions can you answer at most on the NCLEX exam?
A. 265
B. 300
C. 250
D. 350

15. What should you avoid when answering NCLEX questions?
A. Overanalyzing
B. Reading the question carefully
C. Making wild guesses
D. Eliminating clearly wrong answers

16. What type of answer should be avoided due to absolutes?
A. Sometimes
B. Always
C. Usually
D. Occasionally

17. What should you do if you're unsure about an answer?
A. Skip the question
B. Make an educated guess
C. Choose an answer randomly
D. Change answers after every question

18. What should you do when reading a question that seems incomplete?
A. Ignore it
B. Choose the longest answer
C. Choose the answer that completes the sentence correctly
D. Guess based on intuition

19. Which of the following should you focus on to improve your chances of selecting the correct answer?
A. The longest answer
B. The answer with the most information
C. The answer that feels most familiar
D. The answer that uses big words

20. Which of the following is an example of a keyword to avoid in an NCLEX question?
A. May
B. Always
C. Sometimes
D. Occasionally

21. What does rephrasing the question help with?
A. It makes the question easier to understand
B. It helps to remember the correct answer
C. It allows you to avoid wrong answers
D. It helps identify the core of the question

22. What is a good strategy for eliminating wrong answers?
A. Eliminate answers that are clearly wrong
B. Pick the first answer that comes to mind
C. Choose the longest option
D. Pick the most familiar answer

23. What is important to remember when choosing an answer on the NCLEX?
A. It’s better to guess than to leave a question blank
B. Don’t overanalyze, just pick any answer
C. You should always guess the answer if uncertain
D. Read the question and answers carefully

24. How should you approach answers with absolutes like 'always' or 'never'?
A. Select those answers first
B. Avoid them, as they are often incorrect
C. Choose them if the question feels certain
D. Use them if the answer matches your understanding

25. What should you avoid doing when reading NCLEX questions?
A. Reading the question and answers carefully
B. Jumping to conclusions or making guesses
C. Eliminating obviously wrong answers
D. Rephrasing the question

26. What is a good practice when you can't decide between two answers?
A. Choose the answer that is the most detailed
B. Choose the first option you see
C. Choose the longest answer
D. Pick the one with the fewest words

27. What is one of the first steps to take before answering an NCLEX question?
A. Read the answers first
B. Look for keywords
C. Skip the question if unsure
D. Guess based on past knowledge

28. What does carefully reading the question and answers prevent?
A. Time wastage
B. Incorrect answers
C. Overthinking
D. Confidence loss

29. What can help in rephrasing a question?
A. Using simpler words
B. Changing the meaning of the question
C. Omitting important details
D. Putting the question into your own words

30. What type of grammar issue should you watch for in NCLEX questions?
A. Spelling mistakes
B. Subjects and verbs not agreeing
C. Capitalization errors
D. Incorrect punctuation

31. Which of the following is a critical strategy for answering NCLEX questions effectively?
A. Guessing all questions you find difficult
B. Eliminating clearly incorrect answers first
C. Not rephrasing the question
D. Reading quickly without analyzing

32. Why should you not assume anything in NCLEX questions?
A. It may lead you to the wrong answer
B. The questions are too difficult to understand
C. There are no correct answers in the exam
D. You will lose points for making assumptions

33. How many breaks are recommended during the NCLEX exam?
A. One break
B. Two breaks
C. Take breaks as needed
D. No breaks allowed

34. What should you avoid when reading a question on the NCLEX exam?
A. Avoid adding extra meaning to the question
B. Avoid reading the answers first
C. Avoid eliminating options
D. Avoid guessing any answers

35. What is the recommended action if you encounter a grammar inconsistency in the NCLEX question?
A. Choose the answer that is grammatically correct
B. Ignore the inconsistency
C. Skip the question
D. Choose the longest answer

36. What is the normal heart rate range in beats per minute?
A. 60-80 bpm
B. 80-100 bpm
C. 100-120 bpm
D. 120-140 bpm

37. What is the normal respiratory rate range in breaths per minute?
A. 10-15 rpm
B. 12-20 rpm
C. 18-24 rpm
D. 20-30 rpm

38. What is the normal blood pressure range?
A. 100-110/60 mmHg
B. 110-120/60 mmHg
C. 120-130/80 mmHg
D. 130-140/90 mmHg

39. What is the normal body temperature in Celsius?
A. 36.5 °C
B. 37 °C
C. 38 °C
D. 39 °C

40. What is the normal RBC count range in millions?
A. 3.5—4.5 million
B. 4.0—4.5 million
C. 4.5—5.0 million
D. 5.0—5.5 million

41. What is the normal WBC count range?
A. 4,000—8,000
B. 5,000—10,000
C. 10,000—15,000
D. 12,000—18,000

42. What is the normal platelet count range?
A. 100,000—200,000
B. 150,000—300,000
C. 200,000—400,000
D. 250,000—500,000

43. What is the normal hemoglobin (Hgb) range for females?
A. 10—12 gm
B. 12—16 gm
C. 14—18 gm
D. 16—20 gm

44. What is the normal hemoglobin (Hgb) range for males?
A. 12—16 gm
B. 14—18 gm
C. 16—20 gm
D. 18—22 gm

45. What is the normal hematocrit (Hct) range for females?
A. 30—40
B. 35—45
C. 37—47
D. 40—50

46. What is the normal hematocrit (Hct) range for males?
A. 35—45
B. 37—47
C. 40—54
D. 45—55

47. What is the normal sodium (Na) range in mEq/L?
A. 120—130 mEq/L
B. 130—140 mEq/L
C. 135—145 mEq/L
D. 140—150 mEq/L

48. What is the normal potassium (K) range in mEq/L?
A. 2.5—4.5 mEq/L
B. 3.0—4.0 mEq/L
C. 3.5—5.5 mEq/L
D. 4.0—6.0 mEq/L

49. What is the normal calcium (Ca) range in mEq/L?
A. 7.5—8.5 mEq/L
B. 8.0—9.0 mEq/L
C. 8.5—10.9 mEq/L
D. 9.0—10.0 mEq/L

50. What is the normal chloride (Cl) range in mEq/L?
A. 90—100 mEq/L
B. 95—105 mEq/L
C. 100—110 mEq/L
D. 105—115 mEq/L

51. What is the normal magnesium (Mg) range in mEq/L?
A. 1.0—2.0 mEq/L
B. 1.2—2.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5—2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.0—3.0 mEq/L

52. What is the normal phosphorus (P) range in mEq/L?
A. 2.0—4.0 mEq/L
B. 2.5—4.5 mEq/L
C. 3.0—4.0 mEq/L
D. 3.5—5.0 mEq/L

53. What is the normal pH range for arterial blood gas (ABG)?
A. 7.25—7.35
B. 7.30—7.40
C. 7.36—7.45
D. 7.40—7.50

54. What is the normal HCO3 range in mEq/L?
A. 22—24 mEq/L
B. 24—26 mEq/L
C. 26—28 mEq/L
D. 28—30 mEq/L

55. What is the normal CO2 range in mEq/L?
A. 30—40 mEq/L
B. 35—45 mEq/L
C. 40—50 mEq/L
D. 45—55 mEq/L

56. What is the normal PaO2 range as a percentage?
A. 70%—80%
B. 80%—100%
C. 85%—95%
D. 90%—100%

57. What is the normal SaO2 range?
A. 80%—90%
B. >90%
C. >95%
D. 90%—100%

58. What does the acronym ROME stand for in relation to acid-base balance?
A. Respiratory opposite, metabolic equal
B. Respiratory equal, metabolic opposite
C. Respiratory equal, metabolic equal
D. Respiratory opposite, metabolic opposite

59. How can you remember the relationship between pH and the other components in respiratory acid/base disorders?
A. By using the Tic-Tac-Toe Method
B. By remembering ROME
C. By memorizing ABG values
D. By analyzing the HCO3 levels

60. What is the normal glucose range in mg/dL?
A. 50—100 mg/dL
B. 60—110 mg/dL
C. 70—110 mg/dL
D. 80—120 mg/dL

61. What is the normal specific gravity range of urine?
A. 1.000—1.010
B. 1.010—1.030
C. 1.030—1.050
D. 1.050—1.070

62. What is the normal BUN range in mg/dL?
A. 5—20 mg/dL
B. 7—22 mg/dL
C. 10—30 mg/dL
D. 12—25 mg/dL

63. What is the normal serum creatinine range in mg/dL?
A. 0.5—1.0 mg/dL
B. 0.6—1.35 mg/dL
C. 1.0—1.5 mg/dL
D. 1.5—2.0 mg/dL

64. What is the normal LDH range in U/L?
A. 50—150 U/L
B. 75—175 U/L
C. 100—190 U/L
D. 150—200 U/L

65. What is the normal protein range in g/dL?
A. 5.0—7.0 g/dL
B. 6.0—8.0 g/dL
C. 6.2—8.1 g/dL
D. 7.0—9.0 g/dL

66. What is the normal albumin range in g/dL?
A. 2.5—4.5 g/dL
B. 3.0—5.0 g/dL
C. 3.4—5.0 g/dL
D. 4.0—6.0 g/dL

67. What is the normal bilirubin level?
A. <0 .5="" br="" dl="" mg="">B. <1 .0="" dl="" mark="" mg="">
C. <1 .5="" br="" dl="" mg="">D. 1.0—2.0 mg/dL

68. What is the normal total cholesterol range in mg/dL?
A. 100—150 mg/dL
B. 130—200 mg/dL
C. 150—250 mg/dL
D. 200—300 mg/dL

69. What is the normal triglyceride range in mg/dL?
A. 30—40 mg/dL
B. 40—50 mg/dL
C. 50—60 mg/dL
D. 60—70 mg/dL

70. What is the normal uric acid range in mg/dL?
A. 2.5—6.5 mg/dL
B. 3.0—6.0 mg/dL
C. 3.5—7.5 mg/dL
D. 4.0—8.0 mg/dL

71. What is the normal CPK (creatine phosphokinase) range in U/L?
A. 10—150 U/L
B. 21—232 U/L
C. 25—250 U/L
D. 50—300 U/L

72. What is the normal range for serum sodium levels in mEq/L?
A. 125—135 mEq/L
B. 135—145 mEq/L
C. 145—155 mEq/L
D. 155—165 mEq/L

73. What is the normal range for serum potassium levels in mEq/L?
A. 2.5—3.5 mEq/L
B. 3.5—5.5 mEq/L
C. 5.5—7.5 mEq/L
D. 7.5—9.5 mEq/L

74. What is the normal range for serum calcium levels in mEq/L?
A. 6.5—8.5 mEq/L
B. 8.5—10.9 mEq/L
C. 10.9—13.0 mEq/L
D. 13.0—15.0 mEq/L

75. What is the normal range for serum chloride levels in mEq/L?
A. 85—95 mEq/L
B. 95—105 mEq/L
C. 105—115 mEq/L
D. 115—125 mEq/L

76. What is the normal range for serum magnesium levels in mEq/L?
A. 0.5—1.5 mEq/L
B. 1.5—2.5 mEq/L
C. 2.5—3.5 mEq/L
D. 3.5—4.5 mEq/L

77. What is the normal range for serum phosphorus levels in mEq/L?
A. 1.5—3.5 mEq/L
B. 2.5—4.5 mEq/L
C. 3.5—5.5 mEq/L
D. 4.5—6.5 mEq/L

78. What is the normal range for serum pH?
A. 7.25—7.35
B. 7.36—7.45
C. 7.46—7.55
D. 7.56—7.65

79. What is the normal range for serum bicarbonate (HCO3) levels in mEq/L?
A. 20—24 mEq/L
B. 24—26 mEq/L
C. 26—28 mEq/L
D. 28—30 mEq/L

80. What is the normal range for serum CO2 levels in mEq/L?
A. 30—35 mEq/L
B. 35—45 mEq/L
C. 45—55 mEq/L
D. 55—65 mEq/L

81. What is the normal range for PaO2 levels in %?
A. 60%—80%
B. 70%—90%
C. 80%—100%
D. 90%—110%

82. What is the normal range for SaO2 levels in %?
A. 85%—95%
B. 90%—100%
C. 95%—100%
D. 100%—110%

83. What is the normal range for glucose in mg/dL?
A. 50—100 mg/dL
B. 60—120 mg/dL
C. 70—110 mg/dL
D. 80—130 mg/dL

84. What is the normal range for specific gravity of urine?
A. 1.000—1.010
B. 1.010—1.030
C. 1.030—1.050
D. 1.020—1.040

85. What is the normal range for BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) in mg/dL?
A. 5—15 mg/dL
B. 7—22 mg/dL
C. 10—30 mg/dL
D. 20—40 mg/dL

86. What is the normal range for serum creatinine in mg/dL?
A. 0.4—1.0 mg/dL
B. 0.6—1.35 mg/dL
C. 0.7—1.5 mg/dL
D. 0.8—1.5 mg/dL

87. What is the normal range for LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) in U/L?
A. 80—150 U/L
B. 100—190 U/L
C. 120—200 U/L
D. 150—250 U/L

88. What is the normal range for total cholesterol in mg/dL?
A. 100—150 mg/dL
B. 130—200 mg/dL
C. 150—250 mg/dL
D. 160—300 mg/dL

89. What is the normal range for triglycerides in mg/dL?
A. 30—50 mg/dL
B. 40—50 mg/dL
C. 50—100 mg/dL
D. 60—120 mg/dL

90. What is the normal range for uric acid in mg/dL?
A. 2.5—6.0 mg/dL
B. 3.0—7.5 mg/dL
C. 3.5—7.5 mg/dL
D. 4.0—8.0 mg/dL

91. What is the normal range for CPK (Creatine Phosphokinase) in U/L?
A. 20—100 U/L
B. 21—232 U/L
C. 50—300 U/L
D. 100—350 U/L

92. What is the normal therapeutic range for Carbamazepine (Tegretol) in mcg/mL?
A. 2—6 mcg/mL
B. 4—10 mcg/mL
C. 6—12 mcg/mL
D. 8—15 mcg/mL

93. What is the normal therapeutic range for Digoxin (Lanoxin) in ng/mL?
A. 0.5—1.5 ng/mL
B. 0.8—2.0 ng/mL
C. 1.0—2.5 ng/mL
D. 1.5—3.0 ng/mL

94. What is the normal therapeutic range for Gentamycin (Garamycin) peak level in mcg/mL?
A. 3—8 mcg/mL
B. 5—10 mcg/mL
C. 8—15 mcg/mL
D. 10—15 mcg/mL

95. What is the normal therapeutic range for Lithium (Eskalith) in mEq/L?
A. 0.4—0.8 mEq/L
B. 0.6—1.0 mEq/L
C. 0.8—1.5 mEq/L
D. 1.0—2.0 mEq/L

96. What is the normal therapeutic range for Phenytoin (Dilantin) in mcg/dL?
A. 5—10 mcg/dL
B. 10—20 mcg/dL
C. 15—25 mcg/dL
D. 20—30 mcg/dL

97. What is the normal therapeutic range for Theophylline (Aminophylline) in mcg/dL?
A. 5—10 mcg/dL
B. 10—20 mcg/dL
C. 15—25 mcg/dL
D. 20—30 mcg/dL

98. What is the normal therapeutic range for Tobramycin (Tobrex) peak level in mcg/mL?
A. 3—8 mcg/mL
B. 5—10 mcg/mL
C. 8—15 mcg/mL
D. 10—15 mcg/mL

99. What is the normal therapeutic range for Valproic Acid (Depakene) in mcg/mL?
A. 30—60 mcg/mL
B. 50—100 mcg/mL
C. 60—120 mcg/mL
D. 100—150 mcg/mL

100. What is the normal therapeutic range for Vancomycin (Vancocin) peak level in mcg/mL?
A. 10—20 mcg/mL
B. 20—40 mcg/mL
C. 30—50 mcg/mL
D. 40—60 mcg/mL

101. What is the normal range for Sodium warfarin (Coumadin) PT?
A. 8—10 seconds
B. 10—12 seconds
C. 12—14 seconds
D. 14—16 seconds

102. What is the antidote for Sodium warfarin (Coumadin)?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K

103. What is the normal range for the INR (Coumadin)?
A. 0.5—0.8
B. 0.9—1.2
C. 1.5—2.0
D. 2.0—3.0

104. What is the normal range for Heparin PTT?
A. 20—30 seconds
B. 30—45 seconds
C. 45—60 seconds
D. 60—75 seconds

105. What is the antidote for Heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Calcium chloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate

106. What is the normal range for APTT?
A. 10—20 seconds
B. 23.3—31.9 seconds
C. 40—60 seconds
D. 60—80 seconds

107. What is the normal range for Fibrinogen level?
A. 100—150 mg/dL
B. 150—203 mg/dL
C. 203—377 mg/dL
D. 377—500 mg/dL

108. How many milliliters (ml) is 1 teaspoon (t)?
A. 3 ml
B. 5 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 15 ml

109. How many milliliters (ml) is 1 tablespoon (T)?
A. 3 ml
B. 5 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 15 ml

110. How many milliliters (ml) is 1 oz?
A. 10 ml
B. 15 ml
C. 20 ml
D. 30 ml

111. How many ounces (oz) is 1 cup?
A. 4 oz
B. 6 oz
C. 8 oz
D. 10 oz

112. How many pints is 1 quart?
A. 1 pint
B. 2 pints
C. 3 pints
D. 4 pints

113. How many cups is 1 pint?
A. 1 cup
B. 2 cups
C. 3 cups
D. 4 cups

114. How many milligrams (mg) is 1 grain (gr)?
A. 30 mg
B. 60 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 120 mg

115. How many milligrams (mg) is 1 gram (g)?
A. 100 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 1,000 mg
D. 2,000 mg

116. How many pounds (lbs) is 1 kilogram (kg)?
A. 1 lb
B. 2.2 lbs
C. 5 lbs
D. 10 lbs

117. How many ounces (oz) is 1 lb?
A. 8 oz
B. 12 oz
C. 16 oz
D. 20 oz

118. To convert Celsius (C) to Fahrenheit (F), you add 40, multiply by 9/5, and then subtract 40. What is the equivalent of 20°C in Fahrenheit?
A. 40°F
B. 50°F
C. 68°F
D. 72°F

119. To convert Fahrenheit (F) to Celsius (C), you add 40, multiply by 5/9, and then subtract 40. What is the equivalent of 98°F in Celsius?
A. 30°C
B. 35°C
C. 37°C
D. 40°C

120. What is the normal range for fetal heart rate?
A. 100—120 bpm
B. 120—160 bpm
C. 140—180 bpm
D. 160—200 bpm

121. What is the normal variability for fetal heart rate?
A. 4—6 bpm
B. 6—10 bpm
C. 10—12 bpm
D. 12—14 bpm

122. What is the normal range for amniotic fluid volume?
A. 200—500 ml
B. 500—1200 ml
C. 1200—1500 ml
D. 1500—2000 ml

123. What is the normal time interval between contractions?
A. 1—3 minutes apart
B. 2—5 minutes apart
C. 5—10 minutes apart
D. 10—15 minutes apart

124. What is the normal duration of a contraction?
A. < 60 seconds
B. < 90 seconds
C. < 120 seconds
D. < 150 seconds

125. What is the normal intensity of a contraction?
A. < 50 mmHg
B. < 100 mmHg
C. < 150 mmHg
D. < 200 mmHg

126. Which are the components of the APGAR scoring system?
A. Appearance, Pulse, Reflex, Grasp, Reaction
B. Appearance, Pulses, Grimace, Activity, Reflex Irritability
C. Appearance, Reflex, Pulse, Response, Grasp
D. Activity, Pulses, Grimace, Reflex, Expression

127. When is the APGAR scoring performed?
A. At birth and 5 minutes
B. At 1 and 5 minutes
C. At 5 and 10 minutes
D. At 1 and 10 minutes

128. What APGAR score range is considered normal?
A. 0 and below
B. 4 to 6
C. 7 and above
D. 3 and below

129. What APGAR score range is considered fairly low?
A. 0 to 3
B. 4 to 6
C. 7 to 9
D. 10 to 12

130. What APGAR score range is generally regarded as critically low?
A. 0 and below
B. 3 and below
C. 4 to 6
D. 7 and above

131. What is the normal structure of the umbilical cord?
A. The umbilical cord has one artery and two veins.
B. The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein.
C. The umbilical cord has three arteries and two veins.
D. The umbilical cord has one artery and one vein.

132. What is the first step in treating maternal hypotension after an epidural anesthesia?
A. Increase Pitocin infusion.
B. Stop infusion of Pitocin.
C. Administer Pitocin.
D. Change the epidural medication.

133. How should you position the client to treat maternal hypotension after an epidural?
A. Turn the client on her right side.
B. Turn the client on her left side.
C. Place the client on her back.
D. Place the client prone.

134. What should you do next if maternal hypotension occurs after an epidural?
A. Administer oxygen.
B. Give pain medication.
C. Increase IV fluids.
D. Monitor fetal heart rate only.

135. What should be done if hypovolemia is present in a client with maternal hypotension after an epidural?
A. Stop all medications.
B. If hypovolemia is present, push IV fluids.
C. Increase Pitocin infusion.
D. Perform a cesarean section.

136. Which medication is commonly stopped in the treatment of maternal hypotension after an epidural?
A. Pitocin
B. Epidural
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oxytocin

137. How far apart should contractions generally be in a normal pregnancy?
A. 3—6 minutes apart
B. 2—5 minutes apart
C. 1—4 minutes apart
D. 5—10 minutes apart

138. What APGAR score is generally considered normal?
A. 4 to 6
B. 7 and above
C. 3 and below
D. 0 to 3

139. An APGAR score between 4 and 6 is generally considered what?
A. Normal
B. Fairly low
C. Critically low
D. High

140. Which pregnancy category has no risk in controlled human studies?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D

141. Which pregnancy category has no risk in other studies? Example: Amoxicillin.
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D

142. Which pregnancy category indicates that risk is not ruled out? Example: Rifampicin.
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D

143. Which pregnancy category has positive evidence of risk? Example: Phenytoin.
A. Category C
B. Category D
C. Category A
D. Category B

144. Which pregnancy category is contraindicated in pregnancy? Example: Isotretinoin.
A. Category C
B. Category B
C. Category X
D. Category A

145. What pregnancy category is not yet classified?
A. Pregnancy Category A
B. Pregnancy Category N
C. Pregnancy Category X
D. Pregnancy Category D

146. Which drug schedule has no currently accepted medical use and is for research use only? Example: Heroin.
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV

147. Which drug schedule includes drugs with a high potential for abuse and requires a written prescription? Example: Ritalin.
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV

148. Which drug schedule requires a new prescription after six months or five refills? Example: Codeine.
A. Schedule III
B. Schedule IV
C. Schedule V
D. Schedule II

149. Which drug schedule requires a new prescription after six months? Example: Xanax.
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule III

150. Which drug schedule can be dispensed as any other prescription or without prescription? Example: Cough preparations.
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V

151. Which drug schedule includes drugs like LSD and MDMA, which have no accepted medical use?
A. Schedule V
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule II
D. Schedule III

152. Which drug schedule includes drugs that have high potential for abuse and requires a written prescription? Example: Fentanyl.
A. Schedule IV
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule V
D. Schedule I

153. Which pregnancy category is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of harm to the fetus?
A. Category B
B. Category A
C. Category D
D. Category X

154. Which pregnancy category has no risk in animal studies but hasn't been fully confirmed in human studies?
A. Category C
B. Category D
C. Category A
D. Category B

155. Which drug schedule requires written prescriptions due to high potential for abuse? Example: Hydromorphone.
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V

156. Which pregnancy category has drugs with positive evidence of risk in pregnancy, such as Tetracycline?
A. Category C
B. Category A
C. Category B
D. Category D

157. Which pregnancy category indicates no risk based on controlled human studies?
A. Category B
B. Category C
C. Category A
D. Category D

158. Which drug schedule requires a new prescription after six months or five refills? Example: Testosterone.
A. Schedule V
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule II

159. Which drug schedule includes substances like heroin, which have no medical use?
A. Schedule V
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule I
D. Schedule IV

160. What is the main action of antacids?
A. Increases blood cell production.
B. Decreases oral secretions.
C. Reduces hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
D. Prevents clot formation.

161. What is the main action of antianemics?
A. Reduces hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
B. Increases blood cell production.
C. Decreases gastric motility.
D. Relieves moderate to severe pain.

162. What is the main action of anticholinergics?
A. Increases blood cell production.
B. Decreases oral secretions.
C. Dilates the pupils.
D. Prevents clot formation.

163. What is the main action of anticoagulants?
A. Decreases gastric motility.
B. Prevents clot formation.
C. Reduces hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
D. Increases blood cell production.

164. What is the main use of anticonvulsants?
A. Relieves moderate to severe pain.
B. Used for management of seizures and/or bipolar disorders.
C. Dilates the pupils.
D. Decreases oral secretions.

165. What is the main action of antidiarrheals?
A. Dilates large air passages.
B. Decreases gastric motility and reduces water in the bowel.
C. Prevents clot formation.
D. Relieves moderate to severe pain.

166. What is the main action of antihistamines?
A. Block the release of histamine.
B. Lower blood pressure.
C. Increases blood cell production.
D. Dilates large air passages.

167. What is the main action of antihypertensives?
A. Lower blood pressure and increase blood flow.
B. Relieves moderate to severe pain.
C. Dilates the pupils.
D. Decreases oral secretions.

168. What is the main action of anti-infectives?
A. Used for the treatment of infections.
B. Dilates large air passages.
C. Relieves moderate to severe pain.
D. Promotes the passage of stool.

169. What is the main action of bronchodilators?
A. Decreases gastric motility.
B. Dilates large air passages in asthma or lung diseases.
C. Prevents clot formation.
D. Relieves moderate to severe pain.

170. What is the main action of diuretics?
A. Decreases water/sodium from the Loop of Henle.
B. Promotes the passage of stool.
C. Decreases gastric motility.
D. Increases blood cell production.

171. What is the main action of laxatives?
A. Promotes the passage of stool.
B. Relieves moderate to severe pain.
C. Decreases gastric motility.
D. Decreases oral secretions.

172. What is the main action of miotics?
A. Dilates large air passages.
B. Constricts the pupils.
C. Decreases gastric motility.
D. Increases blood flow.

173. What is the main action of mydriatics?
A. Dilates the pupils.
B. Promotes the passage of stool.
C. Decreases oral secretions.
D. Decreases water/sodium from the Loop of Henle.

174. What is the main action of narcotics/analgesics?
A. Relieves moderate to severe pain.
B. Decreases oral secretions.
C. Promotes the passage of stool.
D. Increases blood cell production.

175. Which medication classification blocks the release of histamine?
A. Antihistamines
B. Antidiarrheals
C. Diuretics
D. Anticholinergics

176. Which medication classification decreases gastric motility and reduces water in the bowel?
A. Antidiarrheals
B. Antihypertensives
C. Anticoagulants
D. Anticonvulsants

177. Which medication classification prevents clot formation?
A. Anticoagulants
B. Narcotics/analgesics
C. Antihistamines
D. Laxatives

178. Which medication classification dilates large air passages in asthma or lung diseases?
A. Antidiarrheals
B. Bronchodilators
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Antihypertensives

179. What percentage of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) is assigned to the head in the Rule of Nines for burns?
A. 18%
B. 9%
C. 36%
D. 1%

180. What percentage of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) is assigned to each arm in the Rule of Nines for burns?
A. 18%
B. 9%
C. 36%
D. 1%

181. What percentage of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) is assigned to each leg in the Rule of Nines for burns?
A. 9%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 1%

182. What percentage of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) is assigned to the back in the Rule of Nines for burns?
A. 36%
B. 18%
C. 9%
D. 1%

183. What percentage of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) is assigned to the genitalia in the Rule of Nines for burns?
A. 9%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 1%

184. When administering Digoxin (Lanoxin), when should the nurse hold the dose?
A. Less than 60 bpm
B. More than 100 bpm
C. Less than 50 bpm
D. More than 120 bpm

185. When using Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel), what should the nurse watch out for?
A. Diarrhea
B. Nausea
C. Constipation
D. Fatigue

186. When using Hydroxyzine (Vistaril), what side effect should the nurse monitor for?
A. Nausea
B. Dry mouth
C. Dizziness
D. Constipation

187. When administering Midazolam (Versed), what should the nurse watch out for?
A. Hypertension and confusion
B. Respiratory depression and hypotension
C. Diarrhea and dizziness
D. Dry mouth and fatigue

188. When using Amiodarone (Cordarone), what should the nurse monitor for?
A. Nausea, vomiting, dizziness
B. Diaphoresis, dyspnea, lethargy
C. Diarrhea, rash, fever
D. Constipation, bloating, nausea

189. When administering Warfarin (Coumadin), what should the nurse watch out for?
A. Signs of bleeding, diarrhea, fever, or rash
B. Shortness of breath, confusion
C. Fatigue, weakness
D. Constipation, dizziness

190. When giving Methylphenidate (Ritalin) for ADHD, what should the nurse assess for?
A. Heart-related side effects
B. Dry mouth
C. Dizziness
D. Constipation

191. When administering Dopamine, what should the nurse monitor?
A. ECG for arrhythmias and blood pressure
B. Heart rate and respiratory rate
C. Weight and appetite
D. Blood sugar levels

192. What is a common side effect of Rifampicin?
A. Red-orange tears and urine
B. Dry mouth and dizziness
C. Diarrhea and vomiting
D. Fatigue and weakness

193. What side effects can Ethambutol cause?
A. Diarrhea and dizziness
B. Problems with vision and liver problems
C. Fatigue and weight loss
D. Shortness of breath and confusion

194. What side effect does Isoniazid cause, and how can it be managed?
A. Peripheral neuritis, take vitamin B6 to counter
B. Fatigue, take iron supplements
C. Nausea, take antiemetics
D. Shortness of breath, take oxygen

195. Which medication requires you to assess pulses for a full minute, and if less than 60 bpm, hold the dose?
A. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Midazolam (Versed)
D. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

196. Which medication is used for the treatment of anxiety and itching and requires the nurse to watch for dry mouth?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

197. Which medication requires monitoring for diaphoresis, dyspnea, and lethargy?
A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
B. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
C. Dopamine
D. Midazolam (Versed)

198. Which medication is used for the treatment of ADHD and requires the nurse to assess for heart-related side effects?
A. Midazolam (Versed)
B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
C. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
D. Warfarin (Coumadin)

199. Which medication is commonly used for treating anxiety and itching?
A. Midazolam (Versed)
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Warfarin (Coumadin)
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

200. Which medication may cause diaphoresis, dyspnea, and lethargy?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Midazolam (Versed)
C. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D. Rifampicin

201. Which medication requires close monitoring for signs of bleeding, diarrhea, fever, or rash?
A. Dopamine
B. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
D. Warfarin (Coumadin)

202. Which medication causes red-orange tears and urine?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

203. Which medication is used for treating hypotension, shock, and low cardiac output, and requires monitoring of ECG for arrhythmias?
A. Rifampicin
B. Midazolam (Versed)
C. Dopamine
D. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)

204. Which medication can cause peripheral neuritis, and should be taken with Vitamin B6 to counter this side effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
C. Midazolam (Versed)
D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

205. Which medication can cause vision problems and liver issues?
A. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
B. Ethambutol
C. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
D. Rifampicin

206. Which medication is used for conscious sedation and requires the nurse to monitor for respiratory depression and hypotension?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Dopamine
C. Midazolam (Versed)
D. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)

207. Which medication used to treat ADHD may require a drug holiday due to potential stunted growth?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
C. Midazolam (Versed)
D. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

208. Which medication is used to treat GERD and kidney stones, but requires the nurse to monitor for constipation?
A. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
B. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
C. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
D. Rifampicin

209. Which medication requires you to assess the pulse for one full minute, and if the pulse is less than 60 bpm, you should hold the dose?
A. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
D. Warfarin (Coumadin)

210. Which medication is administered for conscious sedation and requires close monitoring for respiratory depression?
A. Rifampicin
B. Midazolam (Versed)
C. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
D. Warfarin (Coumadin)

211. Which medication requires careful attention to dosing and follow-up appointments to ensure therapeutic levels are maintained?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Warfarin (Coumadin)
C. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D. Dopamine

212. Which medication is often prescribed to treat both anxiety and itching?
A. Dopamine
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampicin

213. Which medication used for ADHD may cause heart-related side effects that should be immediately reported?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
C. Dopamine
D. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

214. Which medication causes red-orange discoloration of the tears and urine?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

215. Which medication requires monitoring for potential vision problems and liver issues?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Ethambutol
C. Midazolam (Versed)
D. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

216. At what age can a baby turn their head up, make cooing noises, and turn their head to sound?
A. 4-5 months
B. 6-7 months
C. 2-3 months
D. 8-9 months

217. At what age can a baby grasp, roll over from tummy to back, and begin to babble?
A. 8-9 months
B. 6-7 months
C. 4-5 months
D. 10-11 months

218. At what age does a baby start sitting up, waving bye-bye, and recognizing familiar faces?
A. 8-9 months
B. 4-5 months
C. 6-7 months
D. 12-13 months

219. At what age does a baby stand straight and play peek-a-boo with their favorite toy?
A. 10-11 months
B. 8-9 months
C. 4-5 months
D. 12-13 months

220. At what age can a baby drink from a cup, cry when parents leave, and use furniture to cruise?
A. 8-9 months
B. 12-13 months
C. 6-7 months
D. 2-3 months

221. Which cultural group may believe that illness is caused by supernatural forces and seek advice from faith healers?
A. Latino Americans
B. Arab Americans
C. African Americans
D. Native Americans

222. Which cultural group may avoid discussing health problems like STIs or mental illness, and may rely on ritual cures or alternative therapies?
A. Asian Americans
B. Arab Americans
C. Latino Americans
D. Western Culture

223. Which cultural group values silent stoicism in the face of pain and grief and may practice the belief in 'hot-cold' yin/yang?
A. African Americans
B. Native Americans
C. Asian Americans
D. Latino Americans

224. Which cultural group may view illness as a punishment for wrongdoing and may consult with curanderos or voodoo priests for remedies?
A. Native Americans
B. Latino Americans
C. Arab Americans
D. Western Culture

225. Which cultural group values technology in health care and views health as the absence, minimization, or control of disease?
A. Latino Americans
B. Native Americans
C. Western Culture
D. Arab Americans

226. Which condition requires a protein-restricted, high-calorie, fluid-controlled, sodium and potassium-controlled diet?
A. Addison's disease
B. Acute Renal Disease
C. Celiac Disease
D. COPD

227. Which condition requires an increased sodium and low potassium diet?
A. Chronic Renal Disease
B. Addison's disease
C. Cirrhosis with hepatic insufficiency
D. Gallbladder diseases

228. Which condition requires a high-calorie diet with finger foods?
A. Burns
B. ADHD and Bipolar
C. Celiac Disease
D. Hepatitis

229. Which condition requires a high-protein, high-calorie diet with an increase in Vitamin C?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Burns
C. COPD
D. Cancer

230. Which condition requires a high-calorie, high-protein diet?
A. Cancer
B. Gallbladder diseases
C. Chronic Renal Disease
D. Cystic Fibrosis

231. Which condition requires a gluten-free diet, avoiding barley, rye, oats, and wheat?
A. Chronic Renal Disease
B. Celiac Disease
C. Hepatitis
D. COPD

232. Which condition requires a protein-restricted, low-sodium, fluid-restricted, potassium-restricted, phosphorus-restricted diet?
A. Gallbladder diseases
B. Cirrhosis (stable)
C. Chronic Renal Disease
D. Cystic Fibrosis

233. Which condition requires a normal protein diet?
A. Cirrhosis (stable)
B. COPD
C. Chronic Renal Disease
D. Addison's disease

234. Which condition requires restricted protein, fluids, and sodium?
A. Cirrhosis with hepatic insufficiency
B. Hepatitis
C. Gallbladder diseases
D. Celiac Disease

235. Which condition requires a high-fiber diet with increased fluids?
A. Gallbladder diseases
B. COPD
C. Constipation
D. Cirrhosis

236. Which condition requires a soft, high-calorie, low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet with small frequent feedings?
A. Cirrhosis
B. COPD
C. Celiac Disease
D. Cancer

237. Which condition requires increased fluid intake?
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Diarrhea
C. Gallbladder diseases
D. Chronic Renal Disease

238. Which condition requires a liquid, low-fiber diet with regular fluid and electrolyte replacement?
A. Gallbladder diseases
B. Diarrhea
C. COPD
D. Cystic Fibrosis

239. Which condition requires a low-fat, calorie-restricted, regular diet?
A. Gallbladder diseases
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Chronic Renal Disease

240. Which condition requires a low-fiber, bland diet?
A. Gastritis
B. COPD
C. Celiac Disease
D. Cancer

241. Which condition requires a regular, high-calorie, high-protein diet?
A. Chronic Renal Disease
B. COPD
C. Hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis (stable)

242. Which condition requires a fat-controlled, calorie-restricted diet?
A. Hyperlipidemias
B. Gallbladder diseases
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Cirrhosis with hepatic insufficiency

243. Which condition requires an increased sodium and low potassium diet?
A. Chronic Renal Disease
B. Addison's disease
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. COPD

244. Which condition requires a liquid, low-fiber, and electrolyte replacement diet?
A. COPD
B. Gallbladder diseases
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Diarrhea

245. Which condition requires a gluten-free diet and avoidance of BROW (barley, rye, oats, and wheat)?
A. Addison's disease
B. Celiac Disease
C. Cirrhosis with hepatic insufficiency
D. Hepatitis

246. Which condition requires a fat-controlled, calorie-restricted diet?
A. Obesity, overweight
B. Hypertension, heart failure, CAD
C. Hyperlipidemias
D. Nephrotic Syndrome

247. Which condition requires a low-sodium, calorie-restricted, and fat-controlled diet?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Obesity, overweight
C. Hypertension, heart failure, CAD
D. Pernicious Anemia

248. Which condition requires increased fluid intake, calcium-controlled, and low-oxalate diet?
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Obesity, overweight
C. Kidney Stones
D. Pancreatitis

249. Which condition requires a sodium-restricted, high-calorie, high-protein, and potassium-restricted diet?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Nephrotic Syndrome
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Pancreatitis

250. Which condition requires a calorie-restricted and high-fiber diet?
A. Obesity, overweight
B. Pancreatitis
C. Pernicious Anemia
D. Stroke

251. Which condition requires a low-fat, regular diet with small frequent feedings, and possibly tube feeding or total parenteral nutrition?
A. Sickle Cell Anemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. Peptic ulcer

252. Which condition requires a bland diet?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Pernicious Anemia
C. Stroke
D. Kidney Stones

253. Which condition requires an increase in Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin), found in shellfish, beef liver, and fish?
A. Sickle Cell Anemia
B. Pernicious Anemia
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. Hyperlipidemias

254. Which condition requires increased fluid intake to maintain hydration, as dehydration increases sickling?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Obesity, overweight
D. Pernicious Anemia

255. Which condition requires a mechanical soft, regular, or tube-feeding diet?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Nephrotic Syndrome
C. Stroke
D. Peptic ulcer

256. Which condition requires a high-calorie, high-protein diet?
A. Hyperlipidemias
B. Underweight
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Peptic ulcer

257. Which condition requires fluid and electrolyte replacement?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Vomiting
C. Obesity, overweight
D. Cirrhosis

258. Which condition requires a low-sodium, calorie-restricted, fat-controlled diet?
A. Celiac Disease
B. Hypertension, heart failure, CAD
C. Diarrhea
D. Nephrotic Syndrome

259. Which condition requires a calcium-controlled and low-oxalate diet with increased fluid intake?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Kidney Stones
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia

260. Which condition requires a low-fat, regular diet with small frequent feedings or tube feeding?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Celiac Disease
D. Cirrhosis

261. Which condition requires an increase in Vitamin B12 intake, especially from shellfish, beef liver, and fish?
A. Sickle Cell Anemia
B. Pernicious Anemia
C. Obesity, overweight
D. Gallbladder diseases

262. Which condition requires a high-calorie, high-protein diet?
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Underweight
C. Cirrhosis
D. Vomiting

263. Which condition requires fluid and electrolyte replacement?
A. Vomiting
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Cirrhosis

264. Which condition requires an increase in fluid intake to prevent dehydration and reduce sickling?
A. Pernicious Anemia
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Obesity, overweight
D. Cirrhosis

265. Which condition requires the orthopneic position with the patient sitting up and bent forward with arms supported on a table or chair arms?
A. Asthma
B. Cerebral Aneurysm
C. Ischemic Stroke
D. Epistaxis

266. Which position should a patient be placed in after a bronchoscopy?
A. Asthma
B. Post Bronchoscopy
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Hemorrhagic Stroke

267. Which condition requires a high Fowler’s position?
A. Cerebral Aneurysm
B. Post Bronchoscopy
C. Epistaxis
D. Ischemic Stroke

268. For hemorrhagic stroke, the head of the bed should be elevated by how many degrees to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) and facilitate venous drainage?
A. Hemorrhagic Stroke
B. Cerebral Aneurysm
C. Asthma
D. Above Knee Amputation

269. For ischemic stroke, what should the positioning of the head of the bed be?
A. Ischemic Stroke
B. Epistaxis
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Below Knee Amputation

270. After a cardiac catheterization, what position should be maintained at the site?
A. Cardiac Catheterization
B. Above Knee Amputation
C. Asthma
D. Cerebral Aneurysm

271. For epistaxis, which direction should the patient lean?
A. Epistaxis
B. Post Bronchoscopy
C. Hemorrhagic Stroke
D. Above Knee Amputation

272. After an above knee amputation, how should the leg be positioned for the first 24 hours?
A. Below Knee Amputation
B. Above Knee Amputation
C. Hemorrhagic Stroke
D. Asthma

273. After a below knee amputation, how should the foot of the bed be positioned for the first 24 hours?
A. Asthma
B. Above Knee Amputation
C. Below Knee Amputation
D. Cerebral Aneurysm

274. For patients with decreased level of consciousness (LOC) receiving tube feeding, which side should they be positioned on and what angle should the head of the bed be?
A. Tube feeding for patients with decreased LOC
B. Ischemic Stroke
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Hemorrhagic Stroke

275. For a patient with an air or pulmonary embolism, which position should be used?
A. Asthma
B. Air/Pulmonary embolism
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Post Bronchoscopy

276. Which condition benefits from the orthopneic position?
A. Asthma
B. Hemorrhagic Stroke
C. Cerebral Aneurysm
D. Peptic Ulcer

277. What position is recommended immediately following a bronchoscopy?
A. Post Bronchoscopy
B. Below Knee Amputation
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Epistaxis

278. Which condition requires the patient to be placed in a high Fowler’s position?
A. Cerebral Aneurysm
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. Ischemic Stroke
D. Pancreatitis

279. For hemorrhagic stroke, the head of the bed should be elevated by 30 degrees to reduce intracranial pressure. What other condition is similarly positioned?
A. Cerebral Aneurysm
B. Asthma
C. Hemorrhagic Stroke
D. Pancreatitis

280. For ischemic stroke, the patient’s head of bed should remain flat. What other positioning instruction is typically given for this condition?
A. Hemorrhagic Stroke
B. Ischemic Stroke
C. Asthma
D. Post Bronchoscopy

281. Which procedure requires the catheterization site to remain extended post-operation?
A. Cardiac Catheterization
B. Epistaxis
C. Asthma
D. Below Knee Amputation

282. Which condition requires the patient to lean forward to control the bleeding?
A. Asthma
B. Epistaxis
C. Cardiac Catheterization
D. Cerebral Aneurysm

283. For the first 24 hours following an above knee amputation, how should the patient’s leg be positioned?
A. Below Knee Amputation
B. Asthma
C. Above Knee Amputation
D. Cerebral Aneurysm

284. For patients with decreased level of consciousness (LOC) receiving tube feeding, on which side should they be positioned to promote stomach emptying and prevent aspiration?
A. Asthma
B. Cerebral Aneurysm
C. Tube feeding for patients with decreased LOC
D. Post Bronchoscopy

285. For a patient with an air or pulmonary embolism, which position should they be placed in?
A. Hemorrhagic Stroke
B. Post Bronchoscopy
C. Air/Pulmonary embolism
D. Cerebral Aneurysm

286. In postural drainage, the lung segment that needs to be drained should be placed in which position to allow gravity to help?
A. Postural Drainage
B. Above Knee Amputation
C. Cerebral Aneurysm
D. Hemorrhagic Stroke

287. After a lumbar puncture, the patient should remain in which position to prevent headache and CSF leakage?
A. Post Lumbar puncture
B. Cardiac Catheterization
C. Asthma
D. Epistaxis

288. When a patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation (CBI), in what position should the catheter be taped to ensure proper leg alignment?
A. Asthma
B. Post Bronchoscopy
C. Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI)
D. Below Knee Amputation

289. For patients with decreased LOC on tube feeding, which position prevents aspiration while promoting stomach emptying?
A. Hemorrhagic Stroke
B. Air/Pulmonary embolism
C. Asthma
D. Tube feeding for patients with decreased LOC

290. For a pulmonary embolism, which position should the patient be placed in to manage the condition?
A. Cardiac Catheterization
B. Asthma
C. Post Bronchoscopy
D. Air/Pulmonary embolism

291. To allow gravity to assist in draining, which body position should be adopted for postural drainage?
A. Epistaxis
B. Post Lumbar puncture
C. Cerebral Aneurysm
D. Postural Drainage

292. What position should a patient be placed in after a lumbar puncture to minimize complications such as headache or CSF leakage?
A. Hemorrhagic Stroke
B. Cardiac Catheterization
C. Post Lumbar puncture
D. Above Knee Amputation

293. For a patient undergoing continuous bladder irrigation, in what position should the catheter be placed for proper alignment and comfort?
A. Asthma
B. Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI)
C. Air/Pulmonary embolism
D. Below Knee Amputation

294. After a myringotomy, on which side should the patient be positioned to allow drainage of secretion?
A. Post cataract surgery
B. Thoracentesis
C. After myringotomy
D. Detached retina

295. After cataract surgery, which side should the patient sleep on, and for how long should they use a night shield?
A. Detached retina
B. After myringotomy
C. Post cataract surgery
D. Post thyroidectomy

296. In cases of detached retina, which position should the affected area be placed in?
A. Post thyroidectomy
B. Thoracentesis
C. Post cataract surgery
D. Detached retina

297. After a thyroidectomy, what position should the patient be in to support the head, neck, and shoulders?
A. Post cataract surgery
B. Detached retina
C. Post thyroidectomy
D. Thoracentesis

298. During thoracentesis, in which position should the patient be sitting?
A. Post cataract surgery
B. Thoracentesis
C. Detached retina
D. After myringotomy

299. After thoracentesis, in which position should the patient be placed?
A. After myringotomy
B. Thoracentesis
C. Detached retina
D. Post thyroidectomy

300. For 1-4 weeks after cataract surgery, on which side should the patient sleep?
A. After myringotomy
B. Post thyroidectomy
C. Post cataract surgery
D. Thoracentesis

301. For a patient with a detached retina, which area should be placed in a dependent position?
A. Thoracentesis
B. Detached retina
C. Post thyroidectomy
D. Post cataract surgery

302. After myringotomy, which side should the patient lie on to allow proper drainage?
A. Thoracentesis
B. Post cataract surgery
C. Detached retina
D. After myringotomy

303. After thyroidectomy, which position (low or semi-Fowler’s) should the patient maintain for proper head, neck, and shoulder support?
A. Thoracentesis
B. Post thyroidectomy
C. Detached retina
D. Post cataract surgery

304. For an infant with spina bifida, in which position should the infant be placed to prevent rupture of the sac?
A. Buck’s Traction
B. Prolapsed cord
C. Spina Bifida
D. Post Total Hip Replacement

305. In Buck’s traction, what action should be taken to provide counter-traction?
A. Post Total Hip Replacement
B. Buck’s Traction
C. Prolapsed cord
D. Cleft-lip

306. After a total hip replacement, which position should be avoided, and what should be maintained to prevent complications?
A. Prolapsed cord
B. Buck’s Traction
C. Post Total Hip Replacement
D. Spina Bifida

307. In the case of a prolapsed cord, which position should the patient be placed in to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord?
A. Prolapsed cord
B. Cleft-lip
C. Buck’s Traction
D. Spina Bifida

308. After cleft-lip surgery, which position should the infant be placed in to prevent trauma to the suture line?
A. Prolapsed cord
B. Buck’s Traction
C. Spina Bifida
D. Cleft-lip

309. After total hip replacement, what hip movements should be avoided to ensure proper healing?
A. Post Total Hip Replacement
B. Spina Bifida
C. Buck’s Traction
D. Cleft-lip

310. In Buck’s traction, what position should the foot of the bed be in to assist with counter-traction?
A. Post Total Hip Replacement
B. Cleft-lip
C. Spina Bifida
D. Buck’s Traction

311. For prolapsed cord, which position (knee-chest or Trendelenburg) should be adopted to relieve pressure on the cord?
A. Cleft-lip
B. Prolapsed cord
C. Spina Bifida
D. Post Total Hip Replacement

312. For an infant with spina bifida, what position should be used to prevent rupture of the sac?
A. Post Total Hip Replacement
B. Cleft-lip
C. Spina Bifida
D. Prolapsed cord

313. While feeding an infant with a cleft-lip, in which position should the infant be held to avoid stress on the suture line?
A. Prolapsed cord
B. Buck’s Traction
C. Post Total Hip Replacement
D. Cleft-lip

314. For a patient with a cleft-palate, in which position should the patient be placed?
A. Hemorrhoidectomy
B. Cleft-palate
C. Hiatal Hernia
D. Preventing Dumping Syndrome

315. After a hemorrhoidectomy, in which position should the patient be assisted?
A. Hiatal Hernia
B. Enema Administration
C. Hemorrhoidectomy
D. Preventing Dumping Syndrome

316. For a patient with a hiatal hernia, what position should be maintained to reduce symptoms?
A. Hiatal Hernia
B. Enema Administration
C. Cleft-palate
D. Preventing Dumping Syndrome

317. To prevent dumping syndrome, what position should a patient adopt after meals?
A. Preventing Dumping Syndrome
B. Cleft-palate
C. Enema Administration
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

318. During enema administration, in which position should the patient be placed?
A. Enema Administration
B. Cleft-palate
C. Hiatal Hernia
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

319. To prevent dumping syndrome, how should the patient manage fluid intake during meals?
A. Enema Administration
B. Preventing Dumping Syndrome
C. Cleft-palate
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

320. In the case of a hiatal hernia, what position should the patient avoid to prevent discomfort?
A. Enema Administration
B. Hiatal Hernia
C. Cleft-palate
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

321. For infants or children with a cleft-palate, what is the preferred position to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Enema Administration
B. Preventing Dumping Syndrome
C. Cleft-palate
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

322. After a hemorrhoidectomy, how should the patient be positioned for optimal comfort and healing?
A. Cleft-palate
B. Preventing Dumping Syndrome
C. Enema Administration
D. Hemorrhoidectomy

323. When administering an enema, which side should the patient be positioned on to assist with effective drainage?
A. Cleft-palate
B. Hiatal Hernia
C. Preventing Dumping Syndrome
D. Enema Administration

324. After supratentorial surgery, at what angle should the head of the bed (HOB) be elevated?
A. Post supratentorial surgery
B. Spinal Cord Injury
C. Increased ICP
D. Post infratentorial surgery

325. After infratentorial surgery, what position should the patient be placed in?
A. Spinal Cord Injury
B. Post supratentorial surgery
C. Post infratentorial surgery
D. Laminectomy

326. In a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), what position should the patient be placed in?
A. Increased ICP
B. Laminectomy
C. Post supratentorial surgery
D. Spinal Cord Injury

327. After a laminectomy, what position should the patient's back be kept in to ensure proper healing?
A. Spinal Cord Injury
B. Increased ICP
C. Laminectomy
D. Post infratentorial surgery

328. In the case of a spinal cord injury, what is the primary way to immobilize the patient?
A. Post supratentorial surgery
B. Spinal Cord Injury
C. Post infratentorial surgery
D. Laminectomy

329. After supratentorial surgery, what is the recommended elevation angle for the head of the bed (HOB)?
A. Spinal Cord Injury
B. Post supratentorial surgery
C. Increased ICP
D. Laminectomy

330. After a nape-of-the-neck incision for infratentorial surgery, what position should the patient be in?
A. Spinal Cord Injury
B. Post infratentorial surgery
C. Increased ICP
D. Laminectomy

331. For a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), what is the recommended position?
A. Post supratentorial surgery
B. Laminectomy
C. Increased ICP
D. Post infratentorial surgery

332. After a laminectomy, how should the patient be moved to avoid injury?
A. Spinal Cord Injury
B. Laminectomy
C. Post infratentorial surgery
D. Post supratentorial surgery

333. For a patient with a spinal cord injury, how should the head be immobilized?
A. Post supratentorial surgery
B. Post infratentorial surgery
C. Spinal Cord Injury
D. Laminectomy

334. After a liver biopsy, in which position should the patient lie to ensure proper healing and drainage?
A. Liver Biopsy
B. Paracentesis
C. Intestinal Tubes
D. Nasogastric Tubes

335. During a paracentesis procedure, what is the appropriate position for the patient?
A. Pelvic Exam
B. Paracentesis
C. Nasogastric Tubes
D. Liver Biopsy

336. When inserting intestinal tubes, in which position should the patient be placed to facilitate passage into the duodenum?
A. Intestinal Tubes
B. Pelvic Exam
C. Nasogastric Tubes
D. Paracentesis

337. For a patient with a nasogastric tube, what position should be maintained to prevent aspiration during continuous feeding?
A. Pelvic Exam
B. Nasogastric Tubes
C. Intestinal Tubes
D. Liver Biopsy

338. For a pelvic exam, what is the recommended position for the patient?
A. Pelvic Exam
B. Liver Biopsy
C. Intestinal Tubes
D. Nasogastric Tubes

339. For a liver biopsy, how long should the patient remain in the right side-lying position with a pillow or towel under the puncture site?
A. Paracentesis
B. Liver Biopsy
C. Nasogastric Tubes
D. Pelvic Exam

340. After intermittent feedings through a nasogastric tube, how long should the head of the bed (HOB) be maintained elevated?
A. Pelvic Exam
B. Nasogastric Tubes
C. Liver Biopsy
D. Paracentesis

341. In a patient undergoing paracentesis, what position should the patient be in after the procedure?
A. Paracentesis
B. Liver Biopsy
C. Intestinal Tubes
D. Nasogastric Tubes

342. For optimal placement of intestinal tubes, on which side should the patient be positioned?
A. Intestinal Tubes
B. Pelvic Exam
C. Liver Biopsy
D. Paracentesis

343. What position should the patient be placed in after a liver biopsy to allow drainage and reduce discomfort?
A. Liver Biopsy
B. Pelvic Exam
C. Nasogastric Tubes
D. Paracentesis

344. For a rectal exam, what are the appropriate positions a patient should be placed in?
A. Rectal Exam
B. Autonomic Dysreflexia
C. Shock
D. Head Injury

345. During internal radiation, what is the recommended position for the patient while the implant is in place?
A. Internal Radiation
B. Peritoneal Dialysis
C. Rectal Exam
D. Shock

346. When managing autonomic dysreflexia, what is the first action to take before implementing any other interventions?
A. Autonomic Dysreflexia
B. Head Injury
C. Rectal Exam
D. Peritoneal Dialysis

347. In shock, what position should the patient be placed in to improve circulation?
A. Head Injury
B. Autonomic Dysreflexia
C. Shock
D. Internal Radiation

348. For a patient with a head injury, how should the head of the bed be positioned to decrease intracranial pressure?
A. Head Injury
B. Autonomic Dysreflexia
C. Rectal Exam
D. Shock

349. If there is inadequate outflow during peritoneal dialysis, what should the nurse do before checking for any tubing kinks?
A. Autonomic Dysreflexia
B. Rectal Exam
C. Peritoneal Dialysis
D. Internal Radiation

350. Which position is recommended for a rectal exam?
A. Rectal Exam
B. Head Injury
C. Autonomic Dysreflexia
D. Peritoneal Dialysis

351. When treating autonomic dysreflexia, in which position should the patient be placed first?
A. Autonomic Dysreflexia
B. Shock
C. Rectal Exam
D. Head Injury

352. In shock, which position should the patient's extremities be placed to help improve blood flow?
A. Rectal Exam
B. Shock
C. Internal Radiation
D. Autonomic Dysreflexia

353. For a patient with a head injury, how should the head of the bed be positioned to decrease intracranial pressure?
A. Peritoneal Dialysis
B. Head Injury
C. Autonomic Dysreflexia
D. Shock

354. For a myelogram with water-based dye, what position should the patient maintain for at least 8 hours?
A. Water-based dye
B. Oil-based dye
C. Air dye
D. Semi Fowler's

355. After a myelogram with oil-based dye, what position should the patient be in for 6-8 hours to prevent CSF leakage?
A. Oil-based dye
B. Water-based dye
C. Air dye
D. Trendelenburg

356. For a myelogram with air dye, what position should the patient be placed in?
A. semi Fowler’s for at least 3 hours.
B. semi Fowler’s for at least 8 hours.
C. knee-chest for at least 8 hours.
D. Supine for at least 5 hours.

357. For a myelogram with water-based dye, which position should the patient be placed in for at least 8 hours?
A. Oil-based dye
B. Water-based dye
C. Trendelenburg
D. Flat on bed

358. How should a patient be positioned after a myelogram with oil-based dye to prevent CSF leakage?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Flat on bed
C. Semi Fowler's
D. Oil-based dye

359. Which condition is characterized by low-grade afternoon fever as a common symptom?
A. Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB)
B. Pneumonia
C. Asthma
D. Emphysema

360. Which condition is commonly associated with rust-colored sputum?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Kawasaki Syndrome
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB)

361. Which condition is typically characterized by wheezing on expiration?
A. Asthma
B. Emphysema
C. Kawasaki Syndrome
D. Pneumonia

362. Which condition commonly results in a barrel chest appearance?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Emphysema
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB)

363. Which condition is commonly associated with strawberry tongue?
A. Kawasaki Syndrome
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB)

364. Which condition is associated with a red, beefy tongue?
A. Pernicious Anemia
B. Down syndrome
C. Cholera
D. Malaria

365. Which condition is characterized by a protruding tongue?
A. Cholera
B. Malaria
C. Down syndrome
D. Typhoid

366. Which condition presents with rice-watery stools and washerwoman's hands (wrinkled hands from dehydration)?
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. Malaria
D. Pernicious Anemia

367. Which condition is characterized by a stepladder-like fever with chills?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Typhoid
D. Pernicious Anemia

368. Which condition presents with rose spots in the abdomen?
A. Typhoid
B. Pernicious Anemia
C. Cholera
D. Down syndrome

369. Which condition is characterized by rust-colored sputum?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Emphysema
D. Kawasaki Syndrome

370. Which condition is associated with wheezing on expiration?
A. Asthma
B. Emphysema
C. Kawasaki Syndrome
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis

371. Which condition is associated with a barrel chest?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
D. Pneumonia

372. Which condition is associated with a strawberry tongue?
A. Asthma
B. Kawasaki Syndrome
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis

373. Which condition presents with a low-grade afternoon fever?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
C. Kawasaki Syndrome
D. Pneumonia

374. Which condition is associated with fever, rash, headache, and a positive Herman’s sign?
A. Dengue
B. Diphtheria
C. Measles
D. Leprosy

375. Which condition is characterized by the formation of a pseudo membrane?
A. Measles
B. Leprosy
C. Diphtheria
D. Dengue

376. Which condition presents with Koplik’s spots (clustered white lesions on buccal mucosa)?
A. Measles
B. Leprosy
C. Dengue
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

377. Which condition is characterized by a butterfly rash?
A. Measles
B. Leprosy
C. Dengue
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

378. Which condition presents with leonine facies (thickened folded facial skin)?
A. Leprosy
B. Measles
C. Diphtheria
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

379. Which condition is associated with a positive Herman’s sign?
A. Dengue
B. Measles
C. Leprosy
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

380. In which condition does pseudo membrane formation occur, especially in the throat?
A. Measles
B. Leprosy
C. Diphtheria
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

381. Which condition is characterized by the presence of Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa?
A. Measles
B. Diphtheria
C. Dengue
D. Leprosy

382. Which autoimmune disease is often associated with a butterfly-shaped rash on the face?
A. Measles
B. Leprosy
C. Dengue
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

383. Which condition is characterized by leonine facies, thickening and folding of facial skin?
A. Leprosy
B. Measles
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Dengue

384. Which condition is characterized by chipmunk facies, or parotid gland swelling?
A. Appendicitis
B. Meningitis
C. Bulimia
D. Tetany

385. Which condition is indicated by rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point and Rovsing’s sign?
A. Psoas sign
B. Rovsing’s sign
C. Appendicitis
D. Brudzinski’s sign

386. Which condition is identified by Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski’s sign?
A. Tetanus
B. Tetany
C. Meningitis
D. Bulimia

387. Which condition, often caused by hypocalcemia, is associated with positive Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek sign?
A. Tetany
B. Tetanus
C. Appendicitis
D. Bulimia

388. Which condition is characterized by Risus sardonicus or a rictus grin?
A. Tetany
B. Meningitis
C. Tetanus
D. Appendicitis

389. Which condition is indicated by pain from flexing the thigh to the hip (Psoas sign)?
A. Psoas sign
B. Appendicitis
C. Bulimia
D. Tetany

390. Which condition is associated with forced flexion of the neck, leading to a reflex flexion of the hips (Brudzinski’s sign)?
A. Brudzinski’s sign
B. Chvostek sign
C. Psoas sign
D. Meningitis

391. Which condition causes swelling of the parotid gland, known as chipmunk facies?
A. Tetany
B. Meningitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Bulimia

392. Which condition is marked by muscle spasms due to hypocalcemia, accompanied by Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek sign?
A. Tetany
B. Bulimia
C. Tetanus
D. Appendicitis

393. Which condition is diagnosed by a combination of rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point and Rovsing’s sign?
A. Psoas sign
B. Appendicitis
C. Meningitis
D. Bulimia

394. Which condition is associated with Cullen’s sign (ecchymosis of the umbilicus) and Grey Turner’s sign (bruising of the flank)?
A. Pyloric Stenosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Addison’s disease
D. Cushing’s syndrome

395. Which condition is identified by an olive-like mass in the abdomen?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Pancreatitis
C. Pyloric Stenosis
D. Addison’s disease

396. Which condition is characterized by a washing machine-like murmur?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Pancreatitis
D. Patent Ductus Arteriosus

397. Which condition is associated with bronzelike skin pigmentation?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Pancreatitis
D. Pyloric Stenosis

398. Which condition is indicated by a moon face appearance and a buffalo hump?
A. Pyloric Stenosis
B. Addison’s disease
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Pancreatitis

399. Which condition is identified by Cullen’s sign (ecchymosis of the umbilicus) and Grey Turner’s sign (bruising of the flank)?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Pancreatitis
D. Patent Ductus Arteriosus

400. Which condition is characterized by the presence of an olive-like mass in the abdominal region?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Pyloric Stenosis
D. Pancreatitis

401. Which condition presents with a washing machine-like murmur?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
C. Addison’s disease
D. Pancreatitis

402. Which condition is marked by bronzelike skin pigmentation?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Pancreatitis
D. Pyloric Stenosis

403. Which condition is associated with a moon face appearance and buffalo hump?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Pancreatitis
C. Pyloric Stenosis
D. Cushing’s syndrome

404. Which condition is associated with exophthalmos, or bulging of the eye out of the orbit?
A. Intussusception
B. Grave's Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome

405. Which condition is characterized by a sausage-shaped mass in the abdomen?
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
C. Grave's Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
D. Intussusception

406. Which condition is associated with Charcot's Triad: nystagmus, intention tremor, and dysarthria?
A. Myasthenia Gravis
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Grave's Disease (Hyperthyroidism)

407. Which condition is characterized by descending muscle weakness and ptosis (drooping of the eyelids)?
A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
B. Grave's Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
C. Myasthenia Gravis
D. Intussusception

408. Which condition is associated with ascending muscle weakness?
A. Grave's Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
D. Myasthenia Gravis

409. Which condition is associated with Homan’s sign?
A. Angina
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Myocardial Infarction (MI)

410. Which condition involves crushing, stabbing pain relieved by nitroglycerin (NTG)?
A. Myocardial Infarction (MI)
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Angina

411. Which condition is characterized by crushing, stabbing pain radiating to the left shoulder, neck, and arms, and is unrelieved by NTG?
A. Angina
B. Myocardial Infarction (MI)
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

412. Which condition is associated with pill-rolling tremors?
A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
C. Myocardial Infarction (MI)
D. Parkinson’s disease

413. Which condition presents with an 'Owl’s eye' appearance of cells, characterized by a huge nucleus?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Angina
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
D. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

414. Which condition is associated with tunnel vision?
A. Retinal Detachment
B. Buerger’s Disease
C. Glaucoma
D. Basilar Skull Fracture

415. Which condition presents with flashes of light and a shadow or curtain across the vision?
A. Basilar Skull Fracture
B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
C. Retinal Detachment
D. Buerger’s Disease

416. Which condition is characterized by raccoon eyes and Battle’s sign?
A. Buerger’s Disease
B. Retinal Detachment
C. Basilar Skull Fracture
D. Glaucoma

417. Which condition causes intermittent claudication, with pain at the buttocks or legs due to poor circulation?
A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
B. Buerger’s Disease
C. Retinal Detachment
D. Basilar Skull Fracture

418. Which condition is associated with acetone breath?
A. Basilar Skull Fracture
B. Buerger’s Disease
C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
D. Glaucoma

419. Which sexually transmitted infection presents with yellow, itchy, frothy, and foul-smelling vaginal discharges?
A. Candidiasis
B. Chlamydia
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Syphilis

420. Which condition is characterized by proteinuria, hypertension, and edema?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH)
C. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
D. Hirschsprung’s Disease (Toxic Megacolon)

421. Which condition is associated with polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria?
A. Sexual Transmitted Infections
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH)
D. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

422. Which condition presents with heartburn as a common symptom?
A. Hirschsprung’s Disease (Toxic Megacolon)
B. Sexual Transmitted Infections
C. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
D. Diabetes Mellitus

423. Which condition is associated with ribbon-like stool?
A. Hirschsprung’s Disease (Toxic Megacolon)
B. Gonorrhea
C. Chlamydia
D. Candidiasis

424. Which sexually transmitted infection presents with painful vesicles on the genitalia?
A. Syphilis
B. Herpes Simplex Type II
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Candidiasis

425. Which sexually transmitted infection is characterized by warts 1-2 mm in diameter?
A. Genital Warts
B. Chancroid
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes Simplex Type II

426. Which sexually transmitted infection presents with painless chancres?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Genital Warts

427. Which sexually transmitted infection is associated with painful chancres?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Chancroid
C. Candidiasis
D. Genital Warts

428. Which sexually transmitted infection presents with green, creamy discharges and painful urination?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Candidiasis

429. Which sexually transmitted infection is characterized by milky discharge and painful urination?
A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhea
C. Genital Warts
D. Herpes Simplex Type II

430. Which infection presents with white, cheesy, odorless vaginal discharges?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Candidiasis
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes Simplex Type II

431. Which infection presents with yellow, itchy, frothy, and foul-smelling vaginal discharges?
A. Candidiasis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Genital Warts

432. Which condition involves hypertension, proteinuria, and edema during pregnancy?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Hirschsprung’s Disease
C. Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH)
D. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

433. Which condition is characterized by excessive thirst, hunger, and urination?
A. Hirschsprung’s Disease
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Syphilis
D. Chlamydia

434. Which condition is commonly associated with heartburn, acid reflux, and regurgitation?
A. Hirschsprung’s Disease
B. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
C. Herpes Simplex Type II
D. Syphilis

435. Which condition causes ribbon-like stools due to a failure of normal bowel function?
A. Pregnancy Induced Hypertension
B. Hirschsprung’s Disease (Toxic Megacolon)
C. Candidiasis
D. Diabetes Mellitus

436. Which condition causes painful genital lesions that are typically vesicular?
A. Candidiasis
B. Herpes Simplex Type II
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Chancroid

437. Which condition presents with milky vaginal discharge and painful urination?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Genital Warts

438. Which sexually transmitted infection leads to a foul-smelling, frothy vaginal discharge?
A. Candidiasis
B. Chlamydia
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Syphilis

439. Which sexually transmitted infection presents with a painless ulcer or chancre?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Candidiasis
D. Trichomoniasis

440. Who should be delegated to perform sterile skills, such as dressing changes?
A. Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
B. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
C. Registered Nurse (RN)
D. RN or LPN

441. For clients requiring non-skilled care and are stable, which member of the healthcare team should the client be delegated to?
A. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
B. Registered Nurse (RN)
C. Nursing Assistant
D. Physician

442. To which member of the healthcare team should the most critical client be assigned?
A. Nursing Assistant
B. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
C. Registered Nurse (RN)
D. Physician

443. Who should perform the final assessment for clients being discharged?
A. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
B. Registered Nurse (RN)
C. Nursing Assistant
D. Physician

444. Which of the following can the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) do?
A. RN
B. LPN
C. Nursing Assistant
D. Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)

445. Which of the following tasks should NOT be delegated to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
B. Registered Nurse (RN)
C. Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
D. Physician

446. Which is the best indicator of dehydration in a patient?
A. Urine Output
B. Blood Pressure
C. Weight
D. Heart Rate

447. What is rarely the best choice when a patient is in distress?
A. Surgical intervention
B. Administration of medication
C. Physical therapy
D. Rest and observation

448. What should you always do before administering antibiotics to a patient?
A. Administer immediately
B. Check for allergies
C. Give after taking a medical history
D. Consult the physician first

449. What should be avoided for neutropenic patients?
A. Neutropenic patients should receive vaccines, fresh fruits, or flowers
B. Neutropenic patients should not receive vaccines, fresh fruits, or flowers
C. Neutropenic patients should only avoid vaccines
D. Neutropenic patients should only avoid fresh fruits

450. How is the nitroglycerine patch administered?
A. Nitroglycerine patch is given as a continuous dose
B. Nitroglycerine patch is administered up to three times with intervals of five minutes
C. Nitroglycerine patch is given every 10 minutes
D. Nitroglycerine patch is only administered once

451. Why is morphine contraindicated in pancreatitis?
A. Morphine is the first line treatment in pancreatitis
B. Morphine is contraindicated in pancreatitis because it causes spasms of the Sphincter of Oddi. Demerol should be given.
C. Morphine can be used in pancreatitis in low doses
D. Morphine is safe for pancreatitis patients

452. What is the rule about administering potassium (K+) in IV push?
A. Potassium can be given as an IV push with care
B. Never give potassium (K+) in IV push
C. Potassium should only be given through oral supplements
D. Potassium can only be administered subcutaneously

453. Per the guideline for immunizations for infants born to an HIV-positive mother, infants born to an HIV-positive mother should ....
A. not receive immunizations
B. receive all immunizations of schedule
C. delay immunizations until age 2
D. only receive selective immunizations

454. What does 'Gravida' refer to in obstetric terminology?
A. Gravida is the number of live births a woman has had
B. Gravida is the number of pregnancies a woman has had, regardless of outcome
C. Gravida refers only to pregnancies that resulted in live births
D. Gravida is the number of children a woman has

455. What does 'Para' refer to in obstetric terminology?
A. Para refers to the number of live births.
B. Para is the number of pregnancies reaching viability after 20 weeks.
C. Para refers to pregnancies that ended in live births.
D. Para refers to the total number of children a woman has.

456. Lochia rubra is
A. a dirty discharge after childbirth.
B. is the discharge of almost pure blood during the first few days after childbirth..
C. is the final stage of vaginal discharge.
D. is the discharge of almost pure blood during the first few days before childbirth..

457. Lochia serosa ....
A. occurs during the first few days after childbirth.
B. is the final stage of lochia.
C. is the serous vaginal discharge that occurs 4 to 7 days after childbirth.
D. is almost pure blood discharge.

458. Lochia alba ....
A. occurs 4 to 7 days after childbirth.
B. is the first stage of lochia, with decreased blood and more leukocytes occuring 7 to 10 days after childbirth.
C. is the serous discharge 4 to 7 days after childbirth.
D. is the final stage of lochia, with decreased blood and more leukocytes occuring 7 to 10 days after childbirth.

459. The acronym most often used is RACE (R) Remove the patient. (A) Activate the alarm. (C) Attempt to contain the fire by closing the door. (E) Extinguish the fire if it can be done safely, in what event?
A. In the event of fire
B. In the event of electrical shock
C. In the event of vehicle accident
D. In the event of domestic violence

460. What should the patient understand about the surgery process before signing an informed consent form?
A. Understand the surgery itself.
B. Understand the entire phases of surgery.
C. Understand only the postoperative phase.
D. Understand only intraoperative care.

461. What should the patient be informed of before signing an informed consent form?
A. Risks should only be explained after surgery.
B. No need to inform about risks.
C. Risks should be explained before signing consent.
D. Risks should be explained during surgery.

462. What time-related information should the patient know before signing informed consent?
A. No need to know recovery time.
B. Know the time from surgery to recovery.
C. Only recovery time matters.
D. Recovery time should be explained later.

463. What opportunity should the patient have before signing an informed consent form?
A. No questions allowed.
B. Opportunity to ask questions before signing consent.
C. Questions allowed only after surgery.
D. Questions are not necessary.

464. What should the patient know about treatment options before signing informed consent?
A. No need to know alternatives.
B. Be aware of alternative treatments.
C. Only the surgery option should be presented.
D. Learn about alternatives after surgery.

465. What is the first nursing intervention for a quadriplegic patient experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
A. elevate his head as high as possible.
B. lower his head as low as possible.
C. administer pain medication.
D. apply a cold compress to the head.

466. Can patients with the same infection in strict isolation share a room?
A. Yes
B. Maybe
C. No
D. N/A

467. What is veracity in the context of a therapeutic relationship?
A. Veracity refers to the confidentiality of the patient.
B. Veracity is falsehood and is unimportant in a therapeutic relationship.
C. Veracity is truth and is an unessential component of a therapeutic relationship between a health care provider and his patient.
D. Veracity is truth and is an essential component of a therapeutic relationship between a health care provider and his patient.

468. In patient care, beneficence ....
A. refers to providing only emotional support to the patient.
B. is the duty to do harm in order to ensure patient care.
C. the duty to do no harm and the duty to do good.
D. refers to the obligation to only provide medical interventions.

469. The term nonmaleficence mean .... in patient care.
A. the duty to do no harm.
B. the duty to do harm in certain situations.
C. the right to privacy in patient care.
D. prioritizing patient needs over all else.

470. For a patient taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors, Tyramine-rich foods ....
A. such as aged cheese, chicken liver, avocados, bananas, meat tenderizer, salami, bologna, Chianti wine, and beer may cause severe hypertension in a patient who takes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor.
B. have no effect on patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
C. should be avoided only by patients with high cholesterol.
D. cause severe hypotension in patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

471. What is the unconscious assigning of a thought, feeling, or action to someone or something else?
A. projection
B. sublimation
C. repression
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

472. What is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behavior?
A. projection
B. sublimation
C. repression
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

473. What is the unconscious defense mechanism whereby unacceptable or painful thoughts, impulses, memories, or feelings are pushed from the consciousness or forgotten?
A. projection
B. sublimation
C. repression
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

474. What condition involves people realizing that their behavior is unreasonable but being powerless to control it?
A. projection
B. sublimation
C. repression
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

475. What is a significant toxic risk associated with clozapine (Clozaril) administration?
A. headache
B. blood dyscrasia
C. insomnia
D. weakness

476. What is an adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol) administration?
A. drowsiness
B. insomnia
C. weakness
D. headache

477. What is a sign of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A. deja vu
B. hypervigilance
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. dystonia